A Short & Concise Analysis of Rom. 11:26—All Israel Will Be Saved!

This will not be a verse by verse commentary on Romans 9-11. It will be a short and concise (or succinct) analysis of all the pertinent passages in these chapters that have to do with understanding what Paul is actually talking about in Rom. 11:26. It is a thorough biblical exegesis, not an eisegesis. You will find no a priori theological biases here. I wouldn’t want it any other way. And, hopefully, neither do you. Our goal is to please God, not man. And definitely not any naturally thinking and carnally minded reasoning Jews. And this goes for any Messianic Jews, Christians Zionists and dispensationalists who give more credit to natural Jews here in these chapters than what Paul is actually allowing for.

Nothing of what Paul is saying in these chapters is about natural Israel, per se, as it is more about those who have faith in God or in Christ and the reason why they do, and why the rest remain hardened. Some are said to be shown “mercy,” while the rest are left to themselves only to become “hardened.” And this is true of the Gentiles as well. This is Paul’s thesis throughout these chapters, and even throughout the entire Bible from Adam to the last man at the last trump of Christ. This is the crux of the whole matter that is set before us. And if it were all just that simple, which it is, we could stop right here. But it isn’t, so let’s probe a little deeper and see what all the fuss is about.

In Romans 9-11, Paul is talking about how God sovereignly in the Old Testament, as well as in the New Testament, selectively chooses (or elects) individuals from the Israelites and the Gentiles to be His “children of the promise.” (cp. Rom. 9:8, 24 w/Gal. 4:28). And if the Church (or all of these “called-out” ones) are all these “children of the promise,” then it stands to reason that there will be no opportunity for others to be designated as such in the future after the Church is raptured (which says something about those who believe there will be a future here on earth for the Jews after the rapture). That being said, there is no other time period (or dispensation) in which this occurs. From Adam, to Enoch, to Noah, to Abraham and even to us there has always been a “child of the promise”—with all others excluded! And this "exclusion" includes all natural unbelieving Jews as well whom God has destined to remain in unbelief (see 9:15, 22-24; 11:7f). It is the same tension and struggle (or the enmity) between the seed of the woman and the seed of the serpent described for us in Gen. 3:15. And if we don’t keep this overall idea of the sovereign election of God in mind when reading Romans 9-11, we will come up with another meaning or idea that is NOT in keeping with this context.

Now before embarking on a more comprehensive analysis of the overall context of Romans 9-11, and even as far back as beginning in Rom. 8:28-39, let’s just cut right to the chase and go right for the jugular vein of all the particulars in Rom. 11:25-26. These “particulars” are: (1) the word “until,” (2) the words “and so” (or “in this way”) and (3) “all Israel”—in that order.

First of all, the Greek word for “until” in the New Testament is achri or heos. To often the word “until” has been understood in Rom. 11:25 as marking the beginning of a new state of things that are to occur with regards to Israel after all Gentiles are saved. Yet the word in and of itself does not necessarily imply a new beginning of things to happen after a termination point, but can also denote a continuation of something alongside or right up until something else is completed or fulfilled. Such is the case with the Greek achri (“until”) used here in verse 25.

To be fair, when one studies the usage of the word “until” in the NT, they will come to find that its meaning is determined solely by each individual context in which it is found. It often denotes something going on until a termination point, with nothing occurring thereafter; or it can denote something happening that may actually continue thereafter. Again, only the context of what is being said determines for us that something can be different or change after the word “until,” or that something does not become different or change afterward at all; in the latter case, the word “until” thus becomes a terminus of an event described, with nothing further to happen thereafter.

To further illustrate these two examples noted above, in Php. 1:5 Paul talks of the Philippians partnership in the gospel “from the first day until (achri) now.” Did this mean that it would not continue thereafter? Of course not. On the other hand, in verse 6 Paul talks about God carrying on the good work began in us to completion “until (achri) the Day of Christ.” Here this seems to plainly denote a completion that isn’t to continue after the Day of Christ. Its terminus a quo is on the Day of Christ, assuming that this “Day of Christ” is the Second Coming of Christ and not some other day. Again, in Mat. 27:8 the potter’s field “is called the Field of Blood until (heos) this day.” Does this mean it wasn’t called this after that day in which Matthew wrote his gospel? Not at all. But in contradistinction to this inferred continuance in verse 8, in verse 64 we are told that guards were posted at Christ’s tomb “until (heos) the third day.” Clearly, no guards were posted after the third day. And, clearly in these immediate contexts “until” means one thing in one place, while meaning an entirely different thing in another place. That much is clear.

Now all the events described by Paul in Romans 9-11, particularly as it relates to the Church age (which they do), were to transpire right up until God is finished with choosing elect Gentiles and Jews as His “children of promise.” It is in this manner that all elect Israelites will be saved, as well as all elect Gentiles. Again, it’s the overall context that determines this for us. And if that is still not enough, then let’s move on to the second “particular” in Rom. 11:26.

Secondly, the Greek words for “and so” (in the KJV and many other translations) are kai houtos, and mean: “and in this manner.” Houtos does not mean “after this time” or after the event being described in verse 25. It is not “after that” event of the fullness of the Gentiles has come in, that all Israel will be saved. It is to be in the same manner as all Gentiles are saved, with a hardening in only “part” of the Jews to remain right up until the full number of the Gentiles are saved. “And so” (or "in this manner") a full number of elect Jews (or Israelites) will also be saved. We can see these Greek words used in this manner (pun intended) just earlier in verse 5, and translated as “even so” in the KJV, and again just a little bit later in verse 31, likewise translated as “even so” in the KJV. In verse 5 it says that just as God reserved for Himself a remnant in Elijah’s day, even so (or in this manner) is a remnant presently chosen by grace from the Jews. In verse 30, just as us Gentiles were once disobedient and have now received mercy as a result of the Jews disobedience, even so (or in this manner) the Jews are now disobedient in order that they too may also now receive mercy as a result of God’s mercy to us (v. 31). And verse 32 concludes that “all” of God’s elect have been bound over to disobedience, so that He might have mercy upon them “all.” And, clearly, these “all” in context are all those whom He calls and saves (otherwise, Paul would be teaching universalism here). But “all” of us had to be bound over to disobedience first, in order that we might “all” receive God’s grace and mercy. This is the “mystery” that Paul is referring to; he is revealing it to us now so that everyone can understand why things are happening the way they are, and so that no one can boast!

Additionally, if “all” Israel in verses 30-32 who are shown “mercy,” is the “all” Israel in verse 26, then the same would have to be said of all Gentiles as well (which is exactly how some interpret all of this in order to be consistent). But Paul has just said earlier in Rom. 9:15 that God’s “mercy” is selective and not shown to “all”; otherwise, “mercy” would not be “mercy” but something we deserve. So, understood this way, verses 30-32 really do help us to know that we are not talking about all Jews being saved in some future day as a whole, but only about a “remnant” who are being saved in the past, present and future. And this goes for Gentiles as well. Any other sense is just utter nonsense. Verses 30-32 really do guard us against the notion that “all” means every single Jew or every single Gentile. And the repeated “now’s” let us know that all of this is presently ongoing, and not just at some point and time in the future.

Now, Paul uses the Greek words kai houtos over and over again in Rom. 1:15; 4:18; 5:12, 15, 18, 19, 21; 6:4, 11, 19; 9:20; 10:6; 12:5 and 15:20. And in none of these instances does it denote “and after that time” or “and after this time.” In every instance it is understood of something or someone that does or says something similar to what has just been described previously. And in Rom. 5:12, the KJV even translates it “and so” as our text in question here in Rom. 11:26. In Rom. 5:12, the KJV reads: “Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned.” Here Paul says that as death was the result of Adam’s sin, in like manner death occurs to all of us as well who have sinned (saying nothing of whether our sin and death is the result of Adam’s sin and death, but only that as Adam died as a result of his sin, we also die as a result of us being sinners). Clearly, even the KJV translator’s didn’t view “and so” in Rom. 5:12 to be interpreted as “and after that time” or “and after this time,” unlike many today who erroneously read into these words in Rom. 11:26 a meaning that even the KJV translators didn’t give to it. In fact, when one looks at the Strong’s Concordance that is geared to the KJV, they will notice that even there it does not note the KJV translation as meaning, “and after that time” or “and after this time.” In the Strong’s Concordance, “after that” is understood as “after that manner” and “after this” is understood as “after this manner,” not “after that time” or “after this time.” Here are the words below that the KJV uses for yourself to read, as noted in the Strong’s Concordance:

in this way (referring to what precedes or follows): — after that, after (in) this manner, as, even (so), for all that, like(-wise), no more, on this fashion(-wise), so (in like manner), thus, what.

The meanings “after that time” or “after this time” are absolutely foreign to King James usage here. And “after that” clearly means “after (in) this manner.” Still don’t believe me! Then look up all the occurrences of how the KJV uses the words “after that.” There is only one of them. It is in 1Cor. 7:7, where it reads: “For I would that all men were even as I myself. But every man hath his proper gift of God, one after this manner, and another after that [manner].”[1] This verse is self-explanatory. No time element here! There is one more occurrence where the KJV translates these words as, “for all that.” It is in 1Cor. 14:21, where it reads: “In the law it is written, ‘With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.’” Once again, no time element here! And many translations translate kai houtos here in 1Cor. 14:21 with “even so,” “even thus,” “even in this way,” and “even in this manner.” So there you have it! The KJV translators did not understand “after that” to mean that after what had just been previously mentioned that something else was to occur thereafter. In the one place that they say “after that,” it means “after (in) this manner.”

Even everywhere else where the KJV translators use the English words “and so,” they meant it to be understood as: “in this way” or “after (in) this manner.” These verses are: Jhn. 8:59; Acts 14:1; 28:14; 1Cor. 15:45; Gal. 6:2; 1Ths. 4:17; Heb. 6:15 and 12:21. The only two verses among this latter group that are somewhat difficult to understand, as they relate to understanding the meaning of kai houtos, are Acts 28:14 and Heb. 6:15. In Acts 28:14, it says that Paul and his entourage were invited by some brethren to stay seven days at Puteoli, and that [from] thus, or in this way, they proceeded to Rome. All that can be gathered from this usage of kai houtos (translated “and so” in the KJV), is that it was in this way or in this manner (i.e., from Puteoli) that Paul and his group went on to Rome. To read the word “time” in here as, “after this time” or “after that time” is foreign to the usage of these words and, again, an interpolation rather than a proper translation. In Heb. 6:13-15, with special attention to be paid to verse 15, these verses talk about God making a promise to Abraham. And since God could swear by no one greater, He swore by Himself, saying, “I will surely bless you and I will surely multiply you.” And then verse 15 states, “And so [or, after (in) this manner], having patiently waited, he [Abraham] obtained the promise.” It was after the manner of the promise given that Abraham waited patiently. Again, the words “after this time” are foreign to the usage of these words here. Abraham thus waited, based upon what was formerly promised to him. The emphasis isn’t on a “time” element here, as true as that may be, but upon Abraham following through on something based upon what was previously promised to him; it was in this manner that Abraham waited.

But what about the words “what” and “no more” noted above by Strong’s that are used in the KJV? There is one occurrence of each in the KJV. The former is found in Mat. 26:40, and is a strange translation indeed. But in keeping with the idea of “thus” or “so,” many translations actually just use the word “so.” One translation will suffice though. In the ESV this reads, “And he [Christ] came to the disciples and found them sleeping. And he said to Peter, “So, could you not watch with me one hour?” It was in the manner described beforehand that Jesus took notice why the disciples could not pray. The latter occurrence is found in Jhn. 15:4, and it too is a strange translation. But God’s Word Translation, I believe, brings out the correct nuance in keeping with the meaning of houtos. It reads, “Live in me, and I will live in you. A branch cannot produce any fruit by itself. It has to stay attached to the vine. In the same way, you cannot produce fruit unless you live in me."[1] Now all of this above makes all the more sense of how houtos is to be correctly understood.

And last, but not least, Dana and Mantey in their A Manual Grammar of the Greek NT note that the “os” (Gk. ws) ending on this demonstrative adverb houtos denotes “manner,” not time, and means “thus, so.”[3] A. T. Robertson agrees, “thus or so,” expressing “manner.”[4] And Thayer likewise adds that “by virtue of its demonstrative force it refers to what precedes; in the manner spoken of; in the way described; in the way it was done; in this manner; in such a manner; thus, so.”[5] And William Mounce,[6] Arndt and Gingrich,[7] E. W. Bullinger[8] and W. E. Vine[9] are all unanimous: “thus, so, in this manner.” So if we are not talking about a “time” after all Gentiles are saved, what then are we talking about here? By now it should be evident. Paul is discussing “a manner” in which all elect Jews are saved in the same way that all elect Gentiles are saved, from Christ’s first coming to His second coming, with a “part” of them to always to remain hardened as Paul said just earlier in 11:7. No more and no less is to be ascertained in the meaning of this Greek word houtos. To read any other meaning into it is simply just a display of one’s own ignorance of Greek grammar. And “ignorance” is not bliss here, which seems to be the case with a lot of Christians. And even with many Pastors and Teachers who are overseers of God’s flock. Instead of being able teachers, they are acting more like novices; instead of being “apt” to teach, they are displaying their absolute inaptitude. Now let’s move on to the third “particular” in Rom. 11:26 of who “all Israel” is.

Thirdly, as already alluded to above, “all Israel” in verse 26 is all elect Israelites,[10] also referred to as the “fullness” (or complete number) in verses 12, just as all elect Gentiles are the “fullness” (or complete number) in verse 25, with all of this said by Paul to be going on “now”[11] (or, lit., “from henceforth” in vv. 5, 30-31), not later. Some will also try to argue that the Greek word, pleroma, for the word “fullness” used of the Jews in verse 12, is to be understood differently than the same Greek word used of the Gentiles in verse 25. But this is mincing over words that are of no benefit to the hearers. Such arguments are fallacious and a futile attempt to overthrow the obvious. And the obvious import of Paul’s thesis is that a complete number (or “fullness”) of Jews will be saved at this present time, along with and next to a complete number (or “fullness”) of Gentiles. This is the doctrine of election beloved for all of God’s children of promise: “children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband’s will, but born of God” (Jhn. 1:13). I like how God’s Word Translation translates this verse: “These people didn’t become God’s children in a physical way—from a human impulse or from a husband’s desire [to have a child].” And this is Paul’s argument throughout Romans 9-11, and even as far back as Rom. 8:28-39. This is the clear, unadulterated teaching of the Scriptures. What we are talking about here is not “from a husband’s desire [to have a child],” as Abraham attempted to do with Ishmael, but about God’s sole desire to have children born entirely by Him according to His “promise.” We see this pointedly of Jeremiah in chapter one, verse 5, “Before I formed you in the womb I knew you, before you were born I set you apart.” We see this pointedly in the announcement of John the Baptist before he was even born (Lke. 1:13ff); we see this in Paul’s own testimony in Gal. 1:15; and we even see this in these present passages before us concerning Isaac and Jacob in Rom. 9:6-16.

So, there you have it in a nutshell! “All Israel” in Rom. 11:26 are all elect Jews whom God NOW chooses to be His “children of promise,” just like Isaac and Jacob. They are NOW part of the “fullness” or complete number (or remnant) from among the Jews, just as there is also a “fullness” or complete number (or remnant) from among the Gentiles. This is the “mystery” that is still a “mystery” to some: A “part” of the Jews and a “part” of the Gentiles will always remain hardened, while all the elect who are sovereignly chosen by God will be separated unto Him to be His designated “children of promise,” as seen in Rom. 9:6 and Gal. 4:28. And it is “in this manner” that all Israel (or all elect Jews), in tandem with all elect Gentiles, will be saved. After this comes the end, which is the Second Coming of Christ.

Now all of the above will be the basis or springboard for even a more detailed and thorough analysis given next on Romans 9-11. But if all the above has satisfied your desire in a short and concise manner for correctly understanding what Paul is talking about in Rom.11:25-26, then you have no need to read any further. But if you still find yourself thirsting for more, then, by all means, read what follows. I promise that you will not be disappointed if you enjoyed what you just read above. Click here.


Footnotes:

[1] Words in brackets mine for clarification. The majority of translations follow the KJV. And none of them say, “after this time” or “after that time.”
[2] A lot of translations use “thus” or “so” in the sense of “in like manner.”
[3] pp. 237, 238.
[4] A New Short Grammar of the Greek NT, 10th ed., p. 246. Italics his.
[5] p. 468,
[6] Basics of Biblical Greek, pp. 118, 408.
[7] A Greek-English Lexicon of the NT, p. 597f.
[8] A Critical Lexicon and Concordance to the English and Greek NT, p. 257.
[9] Vine’s Expos. Dict. of Old and New Testament Words, vol. 2, p. 45.
[10] “Israel” here, as most agree, is not referring to spiritual Israel, as is the case with the first “Israel” mentioned in Rom. 9:6, and also in Gal. 6:16. “Israel” here in verse 26 is referring to natural Jews whom God elects to salvation, just like those mentioned in verse 5. In verse 25, a “part” of natural Israel is hardened, while in verse 26, a part (or a “remnant,” v. 5) of natural Israel is saved.
[11] The Greek adverb noon (vuv) is used in all three of these verses, often translated elsewhere as “from henceforth,” “hereafter” or “from this time forward”; which is very telling indeed.