Wednesday, May 21, 2014

Christ Our Substitute and Identification (4 of 6)



He Who Knew No Sin, Came To Know Sin

The Greek word for “knew” in 2Cor. 5:21 is, ginosko, and is an aorist active participle. It denotes the idea of actively having a deep and intimate knowledge about someone or something; and sometimes in a very deep and relational way. For example, see: Mat. 1:25; 7:23; Luke 1:34 and Rom. 7:7 either in the KJV, ASV, ERV or YLT. With regards to Luke 1:34, the Holman Christian Standard Bible brings out the nuance of this word, when it says: “Mary asked the angel, ‘How can this be, since I have not been intimate with a man?’” In Rom. 7:7, Paul said he had not “known” sin, except through the commandment. Before the cross, Jesus did not “know” of such sin in His person when the commandment came to bear upon Him. So, to “know” no sin here in 2Cor. 5:21 means (as all would agree), that Jesus actively and intimately knew no sin experientially in His person (cp. John. 8:46). But then He was in fact passively and intimately "made sin" experientially in His person, that we might become intimately and experientially in our person the righteousness of God. This is the antithesis between not “knowing” sin on an intimate and personal level, verses being made to know it on an intimate and personal level; and with us not knowing righteousness on an intimate and personal level, verses us now knowing righteousness on an intimate and personal level. To argue otherwise, against the sense and meaning of this word “knowing” here, destroys this antithesis completely, making it only something that is abstract and not on an intimate and personal level. Christ is NOT said to be made objectively an “offering” for sin (as true as this may also be), but made “sin” in and upon His person in opposition to having never before being personally acquainted with it before. This is what the text is implying: Christ didn’t know it, but was made to know it. And the Lord in Isaiah 53:3a says the exact same thing about Christ becoming personally acquainted with the consequences or expressions of our sin. The text literally reads, using the plural form: “He is a man of pains and acquainted with sicknesses” (see also CST, HCSB, Brenton Septuagint Trans., and YLT). Edward Young in his commentary on Isaiah agrees: “The English translation acquainted with sickness is accurate.”[1] And being acquainted with sicknesses here in context is synonymous to being acquainted with sin. Don’t believe me? We’ll get to that in just a minute. But first of all, the word for “acquainted” here in the Hebrew is “yada,” and is akin to the Greek “ginosko” used in 2Cor. 5:21 for knowing something or someone on a deep, intimate, and personal level. Like ginosko, it too is used in Gen. 4:1, 17 and 25 of Adam “knowing” Eve his wife. The Greek Septuagint uses the Greek word eidos in its translation of yada in Isaiah 53:3, which denotes a personal knowledge about something, but ginosko is actually more akin to this Hebrew word yada which takes the idea of “knowing” someone or something on a much deeper level. Regardless, there is no mistaking the significance of the Hebrew word “yada” here, as it relates to “ginosko,” and as denoting the very same idea of thought.

Secondly, the Hebrew plural “choli” for “sicknesses,” though used for physical sickness in the OT, is also used in a handful of other contexts to refer to the vileness or disease of sin. It’s first occurrence is likewise in Isaiah, chapter 1, verse 5. And the Lord again using this word in this manner, says of the people of Israel: “The whole head is sick, the whole heart faint.” (ESV). Just before this in verse 4, the Lord has said: “Ah, sinful nation, a people laden with iniquity, offspring of evildoers, children who deal corruptly! They have forsaken the Lord, they have despised the Holy One of Israel, they are utterly estranged.” (ESV). And then in verse 5 the Lord likens this being “laden with iniquity,” with being “sick,” even to the head. Verse 6, also using this figure of sickness for sin, goes on to say: “From the sole of the foot even to the head, there is no soundness in it, but bruises and sores and raw wounds; they are not pressed out or bound up or softened with oil.” (ESV). Clearly, being “sick” here is likened unto being sick with the disease of sin. The second occurrence of the Lord using this word in this manner, is in Ecc. 6:2. It thus reads: “A man to whom God giveth riches, wealth, and honor, so that he lacketh nothing for his soul of all that he desireth, yet God giveth him not power to eat thereof, but an alien eateth it; this is vanity, and it is an evil disease.” (ASV). There is no need to comment on this, it is self-explanatory. The evil that goes on in the world, as a result of sin, is considered as a “disease” that spreads and corrupts. The third occurrence is in Jer. 6:7, with the Lord again saying with the use of this word: “As a well pours out its water, so she pours out her wickedness. Violence and destruction resound in her; her sickness and wounds are ever before me.” Again, no explanation needs to be given. The Lord is clearly referring to “sickness and wounds” as being akin to wickedness, violence, and destruction—all the affects or consequences and expressions of sin. The Brenton Septuagint Translation translates this as: “Ungodliness and misery shall be heard in her, as continually before her.” The fourth occurrence is also in Jeremiah, which reads: “Woe is me for my hurt! my wound is grievous, but I said, ‘Truly this is my sickness, and I must bear it.’” (10:19; Jubilee Bible 2000). Many commentators view this as a lament of Israel—and maybe so—but I also wonder if it is not the Lord himself now speaking in their place as the Suffering Servant and Federal Head of His people who would bear the expressions or consequences of the sin of His covenant people as a great sickness that needed a remedy. If so, then we have the Lord speaking prophetically the same thing as He has said through His prophet Isaiah in chapter 53:4. The reference in verse 20 to the Lord’s tabernacle (and not the people’s own tents as most claim) as being spoiled and the cords being broken could possibly be an allusion to the tabernacle of Moses, which is also figuratively likened to Jerusalem (or the people of God) in Isaiah 33:20 (cp. also with Isa. 54:2). If not, then it still stands here that the “sickness” (or evil) that Israel is bearing is due to their sin of revolting against the Lord. Again, no explanation is needed as to what this “sickness” is a result of here. The fifth and last occurrence is in Hos. 5:13, which reads: “When Ephraim saw his sickness, and Judah his sores, then Ephraim turned to Assyria, and sent to the great king for help. But he is not able to cure you, not able to heal your sores.” In verses 10-12, the Lord had just said that He was going to pour out His wrath upon them like floodwaters, trample them in judgment, and be like a moth and like rot that would consume them; and that Ephraim and Judah would visibly see the sickness and sores of judgment via the invading armies that were the result of their sin against the Lord.

Any good exhaustive commentary on Isaiah notes how this Hebrew word for “sickness” in Isa. 53:3 denotes the sickness or disease of sin, and these verses just mentioned above unequivocally without a doubt substantiate this fact. Edward Young, in his commentary on Isaiah, thus notes here concerning Christ suffering for us: “the picture is not that of whose body is weakened by physical sickness, for the word sickness here stands for sin. Isaiah is using the same figure that he had earlier employed (1:5b, 6).”[2] In Isa. 53:3, Christ is said to be "acquainted" with our sicknesses (or our sins). And just in case anyone should say that Christ didn’t actually "bear" our sins (but only the consequences of them), verses 6, 11 and 12 say that He did. And then verse 4 actually goes on to say that Christ also “bore our sicknesses [or sins] and carried our pains” (see CSB, HCSB, YLT), using the exact same Hebrew words as in verse 3 for “sicknesses” and “pains.” Here in Isaiah, Christ who was never personally "acquainted" with (or knew) our sins (plural), became "acquainted" with our sins because He in fact personally bore them; corresponding to 2Cor. 5:21 where Christ is said to have never personally "known" (or to have been acquainted with) sin (singular), but no doubt came to know our sin because He is also said to have been "made sin" by having personally borne it according to Isa. 53:12; and we will talk more about Christ being "made sin" in part five.

Clearly, Christ himself never became physically sick, and the text literally says in Isaiah 53:4, as Young correctly notes, “The sickness of us he bore,”[3] denoting not necessarily what Christ did for others in healing the sick, but what He himself actually bore in His own person. And Christ visibly demonstrated or signified His bearing the sickness of sin in His body and soul by casting out spirits and healing all manner of sickness and disease in Mat. 8:17 (see also all the incidents before and after this verse). The “signs” (Mark 16:17-18) of healing the physical wounds of others only touched upon the surface of healing the much deeper and spiritual wounds of sin. Not only did Christ physically heal people which for many are the visible consequences of their sin, but He has also spiritually healed people from the deeper wounds of the sin of our old man whom He crucified (Rom. 6:6a), so that the body that visibly manifests that sin might be rendered powerless (Rom. 6:6b). As Young again notes here in Isa. 53:4 with regards to Christ actually bearing our sickness and pain: “This...brings to the fore the idea of substitution.”[4] And I will take it even a step further: it denotes Christ’s identification with us in order to crucify and put an end to both sin and death. “Moreover, as for you, because of our covenant relationship secured with blood, I will release your prisoners from the waterless pit.” (Zech. 9:11; NET Bible). Sin, and the result or consequences of sin which is death, both spiritually and physically, could not hold Christ or His people down. Christ’s righteous blood redeemed us from sin and the power of Sheol—bringing atonement, propitiation, justification, redemption, reconciliation and sanctification.

Now except for Albert Barnes (who I think is wrong), the overwhelming majority of commentators do not believe Matthew was quoting Isaiah as a proof text for physical healing, but only using the quote in Isaiah of Christ healing the deep wounds of sin as indicative of also healing physical sickness which is usually the consequence of sin, whether directly through someone’s own sin, or indirectly through the sins of others, such as what Adam did to all of us as a result of his sin. The context of Isaiah 53 is clearly about Christ bearing our sin, not physical sickness or disease. And even the Septuagint translators understood that much when they translated verse 4 as: “He bears our sins and is pained for us.” And this also agrees with Peter’s interpretation of this verse in 1Pet. 2:24. So Matthew cannot be using this verse in Isaiah contrary to what the text is actually saying, but only using it as a justification for Christ physically healing people. Matthew must have understood that what was occurring in Jesus healing people was all part and parcel (or complimentary) to His atoning work for sin. So, surely Matthew cannot be quoting Isaiah out of context of Christ bearing and removing our sin, but only using it as a pretext for Christ also removing physical ailments. No doubt, the latter flows from the former. Thus, the true sense of the passage is found in the immediate context of Isaiah 53, in the Septuagint translation of Isa. 53:4, and in how Peter interprets this verse for us in his epistle in defense of Christ’s substitutionary atonement for sin. None of this can be expressed any better, than how the IVP New Testament Commentary puts it:
The context in Isaiah 53 suggests that the suffering servant’s death would heal the nation from its sin (Is. 53:4-6, 8-9; compare 1 Pet. 2:22-25), a figurative expression frequent in the Prophets (Mt. 13:15; Is. 6:10; 57:18; Jer. 3:22; 6:14; 8:11; 14:19; Hos. 14:4). But the broader context of Isaiah shows God’s promise for his people’s complete wellness in the era of the kingdom (Is. 29:18; 32:3-4; 35:5-6), suggesting secondary nuances of physical healing in 53:4-5 as well. The servant’s suffering would, after all, restore to Israel all the benefits lost through sin (compare Ex. 15:26; Deut. 27-28). Thus Matthew cites Isaiah 53:4 to demonstrate that Jesus’ mission of healing fulfills the character of the mission of the servant, who at the ultimate cost of his own life would reveal God’s concern for a broken humanity. [5]
John Calvin also pretty much speaks for the rest, when he writes under Mat. 8:17:
This prediction has the appearance of being inappropriate, and even of being tortured into a meaning which it does not bear: for Isaiah does not there speak of miracles, but of the death of Christ,— and not of temporal benefits, but of spiritual and eternal grace. Now, what is undoubtedly spoken about the impurities of the soul, Matthew applies to bodily diseases. The solution is not difficult, if the reader will only observe, that the Evangelist states not merely the benefit conferred by Christ on those sick persons, but the purpose for which he healed their diseases. They experienced in their bodies the grace of Christ, but we must look at the design: for it would be idle to confine our view to a transitory advantage, as if the Son of God were a physician of bodies. What then? He gave sight to the blind, in order to show that he is “the light of the world,” (John 8:12.) He restored life to the dead, to prove that he is “the resurrection and the life,” (John 11:25.) Similar observations might be made as to those who were lame, or had palsy. Following out this analogy, let us connect those benefits, which Christ bestowed on men in the flesh, with the design which is stated to us by Matthew, that he was sent by the Father, to relieve us from all evils and miseries. [6]
Adam Clarke also says here under Mat. 8:17:
The quotation is taken from Isaiah 53:4, where the [Hebrew] verb nasa signifies to bear sin, so as to make atonement for it. And the rabbins understand this place to speak of the sufferings of the Messiah for the sins of Israel; and say that all the diseases, all the griefs, and all the punishments due to Israel shall be borne by him... The text in Isaiah refers properly to the taking away of sin; and this in the evangelist, to the removal of corporeal afflictions: but, as the diseases of the body are the emblems of the sin of the soul, Matthew, referring to the prediction of the prophet, considered the miraculous healing of the body as an emblem of the soul’s salvation by Christ Jesus. [7]
And, finally, Bengel also writes:
It behoved that the Physician of the soul should also remove bodily complaints from those who came in His way. In this manner also, therefore, was fulfilled the prophecy of Isaiah. Body and soul together form one man: the corrupting principle of both soul and body is one [namely sin]; one and the same aid was given to both by this great Physician, as the case required. [8]
Young goes on to note here how that the Hebrew word in verse 4 for “stricken,” Nagu, “has been interpreted by many to refer to smiting with leprosy. In 2 Kings 15:5 we read: ‘And the Lord afflicted the king, and he became leprous.’ Among the Jews there was a tradition that the Messiah should be a leper, and this thought is also expressed in some of the ancient versions. Duhm also maintained the servant was a leper who died from that disease.”[9] Young continues with regards to this Hebrew word for our English “stricken”: “Certainly it does suggest the infliction of a hateful disease... The precise character of the sickness [of Christ] is not mentioned, but we are probably on safe ground in saying that it was a loathsome, disgraceful disease, which resulted from the striking.”[10] It “resulted” from Christ being horrifically cursed of God on the cross for us. No doubt, Christ was stricken with our leprous disease of sin, making Him before God: loathsome and disgraceful—an abhorrent and obnoxious curse. And in verse 4b He is “afflicted” (or put down or made low) by all of this in utter humiliation. Truly, Christ was “a worm,” and no man. If all of us only really knew what our Substitute suffered for us, we would become even all the more grateful than we have ever been before, in understanding what it was that exactly took place in Christ for Him to crucify our old man in Him, and in us. Even in the fact that the Lord mentions in Isa. 53:5 that the Suffering Servant would be pierced through unto death, Young again goes on to say here: “The participle suggests the complete destruction of the person involved”[11] Christ just being physically pierced by the Roman soldier only touches the surface, not even telling the whole story of what really transpired in Christ. Christ’s entire person in spirit, soul and body was pierced through unto death, both physically and spiritually—and all for us so that we could be resurrected unto life both spiritually and physically. This is in fact “The Great Exchange” that many have only vaguely come to understand, not realizing what truly took place in our Vicarious Substitute and as our federal Head for His body called the Church, in order to redeem us from our sins—not just forensically, but subjectively as well.

Keil and Del. also note here with regards to Christ being made sick with our sin here in Isaiah: “The meaning is not, that He had by nature a sickly body, falling out of one disease into another; but that the wrath instigated by sin, and the zeal of self-sacrifice (Psm. 69:10), burnt like the fire of a fever in His soul and body, so that even if He had not died a violent death, He would have succumbed to the force of the powers of destruction that were innate in humanity in consequence of sin, and of His own self-consuming conflict with them.”[12] Albert Barnes likewise notes here: “But if the word here means disease [which, no doubt, it does], it is only a figurative designation of severe sufferings both of body and of soul.”[13] I wholeheartedly agree. And Barnes even goes on to say how that Christ suffered in body and soul in a very personal and intimate way as all humans suffer in both body and soul, except in becoming physically sick. And though Barnes does not go so far as to say that Christ experienced our inward corruption in His soul as the just consequence due to our sin—as the very “wrath [of God] instigated by sin” as Keil and Deltzsch note—Barnes nevertheless believed that Christ did in fact experience some kind of calamitous effects upon His soul as well, and of which no one doubts. But none of those things constituted a suffering to the death of Christ’s soul, let alone in His physical body, for we are talking about something (such as sin) that brought a death to Christ in both His soul and in His body—as well as in Adam and in all of his posterity. This is the ultimate suffering for sin that Christ suffered for us in order to bring an end to the reign of sin. Any mental or physical anguish was just a walk-in-the-park, compared to all of the forces of hell from the wrath of God that were unleashed upon Christ’s soul and body as the just reward or compensation due to the sin of Adam and of all of us.

Disease that corrupts even unto death, whether physical and spiritual, is the inseparable companion of sin. Thus Christ bears both our sin and the consequence of our sin. And the “consequence” of our sin is death, both spiritually and physically, just as it was for Adam and Eve and all of their posterity. These are the consequences of our sin that Christ suffered for us, in order to redeem us from all such consequences. And not just to prune the branches, but to treat the root as well. The ax was in fact laid to our root. Like the fig tree, our entire tree had to be "cursed" in Christ. For if Christ didn’t suffer all of these things for us in both spirit and body, then He didn’t suffer for us, and we are still in our sins (which many, ironically, still believe). But the fact that He did, gives credence to the fact that we owe our exemption to all of this. This is why we are now called a new man (Col. 3:10; Eph. 4:24) who cannot sin (1Jhn. 3:9), and why we can now mortify sin in our bodies (Rom. 6:11; 8:13; Col. 3:5). And it also exempts us from going straight to hell when we die; for “we have [now] come to the spirits of just men made perfect,” and not later in heaven (Heb. 12:23; see also ISV, NET Bible, NHEB, BLB, CEV), that they without us (who were in Abraham’s bosom) should not be made perfect until the redemption be applied and the new man become created in Christ. This is how the text here in Hebrews 12:23 literally reads. And it is even in accordance with what Peter says in First Peter 1:22: "you have purified your souls by obeying the truth" (NET Bible). The words, "you have purified," are a perfect active participle, which denote us at a certain point and time in the past when we obeyed the gospel (the Truth) and became inwardly purified with present results. The Contemporary English Version reads: "You obeyed the truth, and your souls were made pure." Thus, "the one being joined to the Lord is one spirit," not two (1Cor. 6:17; Berean Literal Bible). We are "one" in holy matrimony and intimate union with our Lord. Again, all of this goes back to us becoming a new man with a new heart in Christ who no longer continue in sin (1Jhn. 3:9). And, “This is how we know,” says John, “who the children of God are and who the children of the devil are (v. 10). And John even goes on to say that Christ appeared that He might “take away our sins” (not just forensically), in order that anyone who lives in Him will no longer keep on sinning (v. 5). Someone might argue in John 1:29 that Christ came to “take away sin” only in a “forensic” manner, but not here! And neither in 2Cor. 5:15 or in 1Pet. 2:24! And I even argue for this same idea in 2Cor. 5:21 and Rom. 8:3, along with countless others.

John Calvin notes here with regards to Isaiah 53:4: “Matthew quotes this prediction, after having related that Christ cured various diseases; though it is certain that he [Christ] was appointed not to cure bodies, but rather to cure souls; for it is of spiritual disease that the Prophet intends to speak.”[14] Kudos to John Calvin for truly understanding the nature of Christ’s death on the cross for us—not only in our “body,” but, even more importantly, in our “soul” as well. This is truly the freedom from sin that Christ came to set us free from; for unless the inside of the cup first be cleansed, it does one no service to clean the outside of the cup; for the pig that was washed will only return to its wallowing in the mire, even as a dog returns to its own vomit. In applying Isaiah 53:4 to Christ, Peter has correctly brought out the meaning, when he says: “Who Himself bore the sins [plural] of us in His body on the tree.” (lit. trans., 1Pet. 2:24). And then Peter goes on to say in the context of that verse in Isaiah: “By whose wounds you have been healed.” In fact, it even says in Isa. 53:5 that Christ was “wounded for our transgressions,” bruised for our “iniquities,” and that the correction due us was placed upon Christ. These are all the “consequences” or “sicknesses” of the beguiling nature of sin. In Isaiah 53:12 it says of Christ, “He bore the sin [singular] of many,” which I believe takes us back to “the sin” of Adam mentioned in Romans 5:12 through Romans 8:3, where Christ is said to finally condemn “the sin” of Adam in His flesh in Rom. 8:3. All the transgressions and all the sins that people commit are the result of that one sin of Adam and Eve. They are the expressions, consequences and affects of that one singular sin. And Christ bore it all to render judgment upon it all; upon sin’s root, as well as upon its branches; upon the power of sin, as well as upon its effects. And Peter also says that Christ bore our sins in Himself, in His body (en tw somati) or in His person (and even to His “soul” in Isa. 53:10, 11, 12), not outside of His body or soul. Our sins really became Christ’s sins, they do not “remain ours” as Archibald Hodge falsely asserts in his book on The Atonement. And all translations pretty much attest to this fact here in First Peter. In fact, the New Living Translation even makes it more clear, by saying: “He personally carried our sins in his body on the cross so that we can be dead to sin and live for what is right. By his wounds you are healed.” Charles Hodge and his son Archibald, flat-out deny this; because they, like so many, want to cuddle and coddle their supposed remaining depravity. But come out from among them, says the Lord, and touch not the unclean thing!

Peter says that by Christ’s wounds “we are healed.” Healed from what, may I ask? From physical sickness, as many erroneously assert here, in order to claim physical healing for their lives? Not at all. Even more importantly than the the body, in context Peter says it was to heal the deep wounds or consequences of sin that was like a spiritual cancer or a leprous condition which permeated our very soul. Thus the Lord “made His soul an offering for guilt” (v. 10); Christ had “anguish of soul” (v. 11); and He “poured out His soul” (v. 12) as an oblation even unto death both physically and spiritually. It was His soul for our soul, an eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth. It is all this that Christ came to ultimately redeem us from by His righteous blood shed for us, in order that we may walk in newness of life. “He gave Himself for our sins, that He might deliver us from this present evil world” (Gal. 1:4). He has "freed us from our sins by His blood" (Rev. 1:5), in order to “redeem us from all iniquity” (Tit. 2:14), and to redeem us from all “foolish behavior” (1Pet. 1:18, YLT). And by us “now having been made free from the sin [tes harmartias], we have become servants of God, having our fruit unto holiness” (Rom. 6:22). The forensic aspect in all of this is no less vitally important; but the inward aspect of this in the circumcision of our hearts is no less to be diminished as inconsequential. Almost everyone will correctly claim (at least in most of the commentaries I have read) that the new man created in Christ after God’s very own image and likeness, according to Eph. 4:24, cannot and does not sin; but then they will go on to say that a part of us still wants to sin inside, according to their skewed view and understanding of Romans 7. But if our old man of who we use to be Adam in Rom. 6:6, has been killed (which he has), then where is this so-called insidious little leaven of sin to be found in us? Nowhere! Our house has been swept clean before our Lamb can reside within and be eaten by us! And if all this is in fact the case, then John MacArthur’s words noted at the beginning of this article now begin to make all the more sense: “So righteous and holy is this new self [or new man] that Paul refuses to admit that any sin comes from the new creation in God’s image....Paul places sin in the believer's life in the body….he will not allow that new inner man to be given responsibility for sin.”[15] The only thing we have to now contend with is our physical body’s cravings for the things of this world. And it is our relation now to our old man as being dead, that Paul now says, “Even so reckon ye also yourselves to be dead unto sin, but alive unto God in Christ Jesus. Let not sin therefore reign in your mortal body, that ye should obey the lusts thereof: neither present your members unto sin as instruments of unrighteousness; but present yourselves unto God, as alive from the dead, and your members as instruments of righteousness unto God.” (vv. 11-13; ASV). How are we to “reckon” this? We are to reckon it in our physical bodies by the fact that our old man or old nature has now become dead to sin in the crucifixion of Christ. Greater is He that is now in us, than he that is in the world. And it is upon knowing this that we can now “reckon” it as so. We cannot, and will not, reckon what we do not know to be true in our lives. As a man thinks in his heart, so is he. Everyone acts in accordance with how they perceive themselves. If garbage is in, then garbage will inevitably come out! And if all of us still believe we are the person in Romans 7, then we are pretty much going nowhere fast. Such a person does not really “know” that they are now dead to sin, due to the fact that they have been taught that it still remains alive and well within them. But in reality, that little “leaven” has been removed from our house to where we can now honestly obey Christ’s command: “Go, and sin no more!” Truly, this truth has set me free. And it will set you free as well. The only “leaven” that is to be removed from our midst is the leaven of the doctrines, commandments and teachings of all these individuals who would teach us otherwise, not the sin. The leaven of the sin of the old man created in Adam has been removed. I had said earlier that more needs to be said concerning Christ being our substantiate and identification, and this is it brethren. This is what Christ has truly “redeemed” us from. It was to go at the heart and the root of the matter—the corruption and depravity that springs from the old heart or old man. There is nothing more liberating for us than this truth that is here set before us. But we must first “know” it before we can “reckon” it; otherwise, we just won’t “reckon” it as we truly should. Our faith will become shipwrecked on the doctrines and teachings of all such men who teach to the contrary. “These are the men who divide you, who follow mere natural instincts and who do not have the Spirit.” (Jude 19). Clearly, someone here does not have the Spirit. Someone here is not teaching a “wisdom” that comes from above. And, clearly, someone here is teaching “the doctrines of devils” and demons.

Though not for all the reasons that I propose in this article, Arthur Pink’s words below are apropos to this subject at hand:
As we attempt to approach a subject so important, so wonderful, yet so unspeakably solemn, let us remember that it calls for a heart filled with awe, as well as a sense of our utter unworthiness. To touch the very fringe of the holy things of God ought to inspire reverential fear. But to take up the innermost secrets of His covenant, to contemplate the eternal counsels of the blessed Trinity, to endeavor to enter into the meaning of that unique transaction at Calvary, which was veiled with darkness, calls for a special degree of grace, fear, and humility, of heavenly teaching, and the humble boldness of faith... When we remember that the Atonement is the most important subject that can engage the minds of either men or angels; that it not only secures the eternal happiness of all God’s elect, but also gives to the universe the fullest view of the perfections of the Creator; that in it are hid all the treasures of wisdom and knowledge, while by it are revealed the unsearchable riches of Christ; that through the very Church that has been purchased thereby is being made known to principalities and powers in the heavenlies the manifold wisdom of God (Eph. 3:10)—then of what supreme moment must it be to understand it aright! But how is fallen man to apprehend these truths to which his depraved heart is so much opposed? All the force of intellect is less than nothing when it attempts, in its own strength, to comprehend the deep things of God. Since a man can receive nothing except it be given him from heaven (John 3:27), much more is a special enlightenment by the Holy Spirit needed if he is to enter at all into this highest mystery.
To what source then can we appeal for light, for understanding, for an explanation and interpretation of the Cross? Human reasoning is futile, speculation is profane, the opinions of men are worthless. Thus, we are absolutely shut up to what God has been pleased to make known to us in His Word... The plan of redemption, the office of our Surety, and the satisfaction that He rendered to the claims of justice against us have no parallel in the relations of men to one another. We are carried above the sphere of the highest relations of created beings into the [majestic] counsels of the eternal and independent God. Shall we bring our own line to measure them? [16]
We must, of necessity, beware of all self-conceit and all man-made opinions and philosophies on the Atonement, unless we can prove them by comparing Scripture with Scripture. Sadly, the high sounding philosophies and vain (or worthless) reasonings and deceitfulness of men have muddied the waters for us when it comes to understanding exactly what Christ did for His people on the cross. Did Christ justify us? Thank God, yes! But even more than that, Christ has sanctified us to be holy and blameless at His coming, just like Job and all the saints who practiced what they preached. God, to show His love towards us, showed Himself to be God in this: that He could be God and still humble Himself to go so low, and I mean really “low,” even as a worm (Psm. 22:6), in order to die in union with us as the old man so that He could raise us up in union with Him as a new man.

An individual online, who is himself reformed in his theology, once wisely stated concerning many in the reformed camp: “In trying to beat Socinian rationalism at its own game, Reformed theologians were conceding the Socinian assumption that every aspect of God’s work of reconciliation will be exhaustively explicable in terms of a natural theology of divine government, drawn from the world of contemporary legal and political thought. Thus, in their zeal to show themselves rational, they became rationalistic.” And this is no less true today with regards to those in our midst who attempt to rationalize the Atonement down to the bare notion or idea of something only being realized “forensically,” and not subjectively as well, at least not on a level in us that should in fact be recognized on a very deep, intimate, and personal level in the crucifixion of the moral depravity and corruption of our old sinful hearts. In their “zeal” to defend the penal satisfaction to justice in a forensic manner, many brethren have stripped and robbed the cross of its personal efficacy and power towards us in the crucifixion of our old man, and in the raising us up as a new man, and then even downplay all of this to mean things that they just do not mean, such as: being still part old man and part new man; being part unregenerate and part regenerate; being part unrenewed and part renewed; and even the insidious notion or idea, as Douglas Moo claims in his commentary on Romans 6, that Christ only crucified our relation to the world as we stood in Adam, doing nothing whatsoever within us subjectively on a personal level. It is referred to in Christian jargon as: the “corporate” or “historical-redemptive” viewpoint. Thus Moo writes: “What I suggest is that the ‘old self’ is a relational and corporate concept. It does not refer to a part of or to a nature within us....What is crucified, then, is...relationship.... [A]t this point [i.e., in the crucifixion of our ‘old man’] the governing idea is not that God changes us inside, but that he moves us from one regime to another”[17] This is humanistic rationalism or logic to the nth degree. It entirely robs the cross of its personal and intimate efficacy for us, to the bare notion or idea that Paul in Romans 6 is talking about nothing done “within us” whatsoever. Are these the kind of teachers you want to lend your ears to? Does this so-called truth set you free? Or, is what I am presenting to you here today the actual means of setting you free? This is what we have come to in all of this in the Church today: rationalists who rationalize away the power and efficacy of the cross to just a bare legal notion or idea, or even just an outward “corporate” relationship, doing nothing whatsoever in us subjectively, let alone even in Christ—at least not on the level that the Bible truly reveals to us through the revelation of the Apostles.

If Paul is referring to himself as a believer in Romans 7 with ever-present indwelling sin, then, in the words of Godet: “So understood of the description of the miserable state, vv. 14-25, would be the demonstration not of the impotence of the law, but of that of the gospel[18] This is a point by Godet that should not go quickly unnoticed. Romans 7:15-19 not only reveals the inefficiency of the Law to make Paul holy, but the inefficiency of the gospel (if indeed this is Paul as a believer), for Paul says unequivocally in these verses that he only keeps on “practicing” (Gk. prasso; NASB) those things that he did not really deep down inside want to do. And the law producing “all kinds of coveting” in verse 8 was one of them. But almost all commentators agree that Paul wrote his epistle to the Romans while staying three months in Cenchrea on his third missionary journey in Acts 20:3. And soon thereafter he sails to Miletus to meet the Elders from Ephesus, exclaiming all to the contrary of what he says in Rom. 7:8: “I have not coveted anyone’s silver or gold or clothing. You yourselves KNOW that these hands of mine have supplied my own needs and the needs of my companions” (v. 33). “In everything I did, I showed you,” says Paul, “it is more blessed to give than to receive.” (v. 35). I rest my case. Paul was NOT speaking of himself in Romans 7 as a believer who continually sinned, let alone even “coveted” at that! In fact, in many of his epistles Paul rebuked those who coveted, and even said at one point and time that we should not even eat with such people, and that such people would not even inherit the kingdom of God (1Cor. 5:11; 6:9-10), which is the very same thing he says of all those in Gal. 5:21 who “practiced” (Gk. prossontes) such things.

In conclusion, Lange sums up all of this under 2Cor. 5:21 in respect to Christ being “made sin” for us: “He who knows no sin, to whose internal nature or outward action all contradiction to God or departure from the Divine will was a complete stranger, altogether beyond His personal experience or consciousness....God allows sin to become an actual experience to Him who has never committed it in fact.”[19] So, the question still remains: In what sense did Christ exactly “experience” our sin? After all that was said above, need we really ask? Some will say only by imputation in the bearing of our “guilt,” absent of any sin in or upon His person. But this destroys the antithesis between not “knowing” something intimately on a personal level, verses actually “knowing” something intimately on a personal level, which no one by now should argue otherwise. Not to mention the fact that Christ is said to be “made” sin, antithetically to having never being made sin before. I for one believe ‒ and I believe also the Scriptures ‒ argue for a complete identification in Christ’s human nature of spirit, soul, and body with our sin ‒ along with the power behind it all ‒ in order to crucify it and render it powerless over our lives so that we may walk in all righteousness and holiness before God. God dealt with Christ as the sin-bearing Substitute for His people, inflicting upon Christ all of their sins. And as their sin-bearing Substitute, Christ was justly exposed to all of the dreadful consequences, both physically and spiritually, that were due them in order to overturn it all. Jesus undid everything that Adam had done, and did everything that Adam had failed to do.

The late Greg Bahnsen had succinctly noted: “Accordingly we need to ask: from what does Jesus save us, and in what way has He done so? The Biblical answer is plain and plentiful. Jesus saves us from sin and its consequences.” [20]

Bahnsen then goes on to say:
This is not at all to say, however, that God's "saving" work for sinners is restricted to judicial concerns – that God's only concern is to deliver His people from a guilty verdict and eternal condemnation. Salvation also brings renovation, regeneration – veritable re-creation.... Man’s moral dilemma encompasses not only the guilt of sin but also its pollution of his character: his waywardness, evil desires, disinclination to good, slavery to sin, or depravity.... Our objective, judicial problem before God brings with it a subjective, internal corruption which is nothing less than complete spiritual deadness.... God’s grace in Christ saves sinners not only from the objective guilt of their sin, but also from the internal pollution and power of their sin as well. [21]
This is what I have been in fact saying all along in this article. And I appreciate Bahnsen’s candidness and forthrightness on this matter. Many reformed brethren (and even many Christians for that matter) won’t even go that far in stating what Bahnsen has just said. But Bahnsen, like most, still believed we have indwelling sin. And he, like most, does not tell us how Christ saved us from this “internal pollution” and “power” of sin, for Bahnsen also says in this article written by him that Christ did not personally have our sin(s) imparted or “infused” (as he words it) into Him, calling such an idea, “heretical horror!”[22], and pretty much parroting everyone else who has reasoned as such like him who think that Christ personally being "made sin" in His human flesh would have overshadowed His own previous personal holiness and righteous virtue as the unblemished Lamb of God. So then how, may I again ask, did Christ condemn this “internal pollution” and “power” of sin in us, if He didn’t in fact become us with our sin imparted (or “infused”) into Him in order to kill it and render it powerless in our lives? Paul doesn’t tell us that Christ’s innocence alone condemned the power of sin in us, but that Christ as a Sin-Bearer of our sins in and upon His flesh, making His flesh as “sinful flesh” according to Romans 8:3 (and even according to 2Cor. 5:21), condemned the power of our sin in His flesh—and in us! Again, not as a sinless substitute, but as a substitute with our sin placed in and upon Christ’s entire human nature of spirit, soul, and body. God had told Adam, literally in the Hebrew, that: “in dying you shall die” (Gen. 2:17; see also YLT). In other words, in dying spiritually as a result of disobedience, Adam would also die physically, returning to the ground from which he was made. And before being in Christ we were also dead both spiritually and physically as a result of our union in Adam as our federal head. But in Christ dying as our federal head with our sin placed in and upon His person, He was in fact made alive through the righteousness of life that was found in His shed blood (speaking better things than that of Abel's), justifying both Him and us unto a resurrection of life. Christ's life (as well as ours) as the son of man is in His righteous and unblemished blood poured out on the altar of sacrifice at the foot of the cross, with the little remaining blood in His body presented and sprinkled before the Father upon heaven's mercy seat (Heb. 9:12; 12:24). In spiritually dying, Adam (and all those in him) would die for his disobedience unto sin; whereas in Christ dying spiritually to our sin placed in and upon His person, He (and all those in Him) are made alive by His obedience unto righteousness. Thus our old man was put off with a new man re-created in his place. Now that's what I call substitution and identification! Our Second Adam far exceeds what our first Adam did to us; with Christ becoming like us (and even as Adam) in order that all of us might become even as He is. Hallelujah!

Gal. 3:13 offers us an important parallel to 2Cor. 5:21 and Rom. 8:3. Paul asserts in Galatians that Christ became “a curse” for us in order to redeem us from that curse and incur a blessing for us through the offering up of Himself to God with our sin placed in and upon His person. Here Paul is not focusing on Jesus’ glorious and sinless human life “as a lamb without spot and blemish” (1Pet. 1:19) in order to justify us, but on Christ’s inglorious death as a sinner to condemn and curse sin (our sin) in His flesh in order to redeem us from that sin (see also Tit. 2:14). In the OT ceremonies, the animal offered up to atone for sins had to be holy and without defect precisely so that both the priest and the offerer could rest assured that the death that the animal died was not for itself, but for another. It was dying in the place of another. And in the case of Leviticus 16, the animal that atoned for sin must not only be without defects, but the identical accompanying Scapegoat had the people’s sins imparted to it (through the laying on of hands) and confessed over it in order to bear and to carry away their sins. As such, John says by revelation that Christ was, "the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world" (Jhn. 1:29).[23] The spotless Lamb of God who knew no sin, under another figure or guise in Leviticus 16, was made sin for us so that in Him we might become the righteousness of God, not only forensically but practically as well. And this transference of sin by the laying on of hands upon a lamb as an offering for sin is also alluded to in Lev. 4:32-33, not to mention what Isaiah says about God laying upon Christ "the iniquity of us all" (53:6) and having Him "bear their iniquities" (v. 11; see also immediate footnote above for more on Christ bearing our sin and the impartation of this sin in and upon Christ through the laying on of hands).

What has been delineated above, beloved, is the doctrine of substitution and identification—both in Him and for us. Christ became as us that we might become as Him. The first Adam became just the opposite of what he originally was, and we became like him after his fall. Christ reversed all of that for us as our Second Adam, killing what was created by our first Adam in taking on his sinful flesh, condemning it, and then re-creating us as a new man after the image and likeness of God (cp. Eph. 4:24). What was lost in Adam, has been gloriously restored to us in the person and work of Christ on the cross. But, again, some beg to differ.

Click here for part five.


Footnotes:

[1] Isaiah, vol. 3, p. 343; italics for emphasis his.
[2] Ibid, p. 344; emphasis his.
[3] Ibid, p. 345.
[4] Ibid.
[5] Accessed online at: biblegateway.com. Emphasis mine.
[6] Accessed online at: biblehub.com. Emphasis mine.
[7] Accessed online at: biblehub.com. Words in brackets and emphasis mine.
[8] Accessed online at: biblehub.com. Words in brackets his, emphasis mine.
[9] Ibid, p. 346.
[10] Ibid; emphasis and words in brackets mine.
[11] Ibid, p. 347; emphasis mine.
[12] Accessed online at: biblehub.com; emphasis mine.
[13] Accessed online at: biblehub.com; emphasis and words in brackets mine.
[14] Accessed online at: biblehub.com; emphasis mine.
[15] MacArthur NT Comm., Ephesians, pp. 178-179; words in brackets mine.
[16] Satisfaction of Christ; pp. 6, 7, 8.
[17] NIV Application Commentary, Romans, p. 207; emphasis and words in brackets mine.
[18] Romans, p. 281.
[19] Lange’s Commentary on the Holy Scriptures, accessed online at: biblehub.com.
[20] The Judicial and Substitutionary Nature of Salvation; accessed online at: http://www.cmfnow.com/articles/pt153.htm. Emphasis his.
[21] Ibid. Emphasis mine.
[22] Ibid.
[23] Archibald Hodge, in his book, The Atonement, goes to great pains on pages 176-177 to prove that the Hebrew words for “bear” in the OT with regards to Christ denote only the idea of bearing a penalty (or “guilt”), and not the actual removal of a thing, such as our sins; for Hodge (and all those in league with him) doesn’t even believe our sins were actually transferred or imparted to Christ, but only that Christ bore our “guilt” as a penal satisfaction to justice. He cites a couple of OT examples of people being held “guilty” without necessarily removing anything. And he even cites Lev. 16:22 as a proof text for this kind of “bearing” of the scapegoat, seemingly overlooking entirely the fact that the scapegoat is said to bear “all the sins” of the people, not just their “guilt.” But even this he finagles to mean just the guilt of our sins and not the sins themselves. But all of this was for the time being only typical and symbolical, not actual, so Hodge is not justified in saying that our sins were not literally transferred to Christ based upon this OT “type”. At the end of this chapter of his, Hodge writes:
...it is a notorious fact, admitted by all scholars, that the New Testament writers quote the Old Testament freely, accommodating the sense to a present purpose. Isaiah [53:4 (2), 11, 12] affirms that Christ bore our sorrows [or sins]—that is, bore them on himself in order to remove them. Isaiah uses the technical words נשא [nasa] and סבל [sabal]; the Septuagint translates by φέρω [phero], but Matthew [8:17] substitutes ἔλαβε [from the Greek lambano]. There is no contradiction; only Isaiah emphasized the carried, and Matthew emphasized the removed. The first pointed out the means, the other the result effected.” (Ibid., p. 178; emphasis and words in brackets mine).
So in reading Hodge, I began to wonder, which is it? To bear, or to bear and remove? For his own a priori theological reasons Hodge believed Christ only bore our “guilt” and just "removed" that, but not our sin. But this seems hardly the case in Mat. 8:17, where Matthew in quoting Isaiah 53:4 applies it to Christ actually removing physical sickness and disease, which were the evident tokens or signs of the eventual removal of even the greater disease of sin as mentioned earlier in the main body of this discussion. Saint John by revelation also argued otherwise, noting how that Christ was “the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world” (Jhn. 1:29), using the Greek word airo this time to denote this removal of our sin. And if anyone argues here that John just meant Christ removing our sin in a forensic or judicial manner, John again refers to this idea of Christ removing our sins in a practical manner as well in 1 John 3:5, using the same Greek word. Conspicuously, Hodge mentions this Greek word airo only in passing on page 177, and says that it means just "to bear away," citing no Scriptures whatsoever to prove his theory, and then quickly moves on to other Greek words (such as phero and anaphero) that support his idea of Christ just "bearing" our "guilt." But the Greek Septuagint and the Greek New Testament give us a number of examples of airo also including the idea to "remove" or "take away."

John had no problem in understanding the One who would “bear” our sin according to the Hebrew word “nasa” used in Isa. 53:4 and 12, would also “take away” (or carry away) our sin according to how the Hebrew word “nasa” is to be understood in Lev. 16:22 (see God's Word Trans.), in accordance with how it is also translated in the Greek Septuagint in 1Sam. 15:25 and 1Sam. 25:28 of “removing” a fault, and not just “bearing” it. For the Greek Septuagint likewise uses the same Greek word “airo” in these passages that John uses to denote this “removal” of our sins. In 1Sam. 15:25, the Brenton Septuagint Translation reads with regards to Saul imploring Samuel, starting in verse 24: “And Saul said to Samuel, I have sinned, in that I have transgressed the word of the Lord and thy direction; for I feared the people, and I hearkened to their voice. And now remove (Gk. airo) I pray thee, my sin, and turn back with me, and I will worship the Lord thy God.” In 1Sam. 25:28, the Brenton Septuagint Translation again reads concerning Abigail with David: “Remove (Gk. airo) I pray thee, the trespass of thy servant; for the Lord will surely make for my lord a sure house, for the Lord fights the battles of my lord, and there shall no evil be ever found in thee.”

On page 176 in Archibald Hodge’s book called, The Atonement, he says that “nasa,” when construed with sin, “always plainly means ‘to bear sin’ in the sense of [only] ‘being penally responsible for it”; and his father Charles says the exact same thing in his Systematic Theology, vol. 2, p. 201. But how does this square with these passages above in First Samuel? It doesn’t. These verses in First Samuel completely reveal otherwise. Was Saul and Abigail asking Samuel and David to be penally responsible for their sins? How absurd is that! And the fact that the Septuagint translators chose the Greek “airo” for “nasa” (with John also likewise using it) shows that the idea of just bearing sin to be penally responsible for the guilt of it, and not to somehow actually remove it, is completely unfounded. Neither Saul nor Abigail were asking Samuel or David to bear their penalty of guilt, let alone even bear their sin, but to somehow and in someway placate, remove, and take away their sin from them—impossible for men to actually do, but not impossible in Christ’s case. Many translations try to rectify this incongruence in these verses in First Samuel by stating that both Saul and Abigail were only asking for “forgiveness.” But both nasa and airo do not allow for this translation. The literal Hebrew (and the Greek Septuagint) really do tell the story of what both Saul and Abigail were asking for. They were asking that their sin be removed both out-of-sight and out-of-mind from the minds of both Samuel and Saul. Forgiveness somewhat tells the story, but it doesn’t tell the whole story; and it definitely doesn’t mean to bear their sin or to be penally responsible for the guilt of their sin, as Archibald Hodge and his father claim. There are roughly 172 occurrences of “airo” used for the Hebrew “nasa” in the Greek Septuagint, and in all of these instances it means nothing more than to bear or to carry, with the context sometimes also denoting something to be borne or carried away. And when the idea of removing or taking away is implied in the context, the Greek word airo is definitely more fitting than the Greek words phero or anaphero.

It is a well-attested fact that the Apostles used the Greek Septuagint. And of all the words that John could have used to describe Christ just “bearing” our sin, he chose the most least likely one that denotes more than Christ just “bearing” our sin(s), but one that denotes also the “removal” of our sin(s) as well. For, again, bearing implies removal and removal implies bearing—at least as far as Christ is concerned. Normally the Greek word anaphero is used for “bearing,” as in Heb. 9:28 and 1Pet. 2:24. And even in these cases the idea of bearing in order to remove is not without precedent when we are talking about the nature of Christ’s work. Regardless, there is to be no doubt on how John understood the Greek airo to be interpreted here. And, again, his usage of it in 1Jhn. 3:5 substantiates this idea of “removal”— a “removal” that implies also a bearing. And it is of "sin," not just "guilt." Not just forensically, but practically as well; not just in expiation, but in our sanctification.

A plethora of NT examples for this Greek word airo being used for “taking away” or “removing” are: Mat. 13:12; 21:21, 43; 22:13; 24:39; Lke. 6:29, 30; 8:12, 18; 11:22, 52; 17:31; 19:26; Jhn. 2:16; 10:18; 11:39, 41, 48; 15:2; 17:15; 19:15, 31, 38; 20:1, 2, 13, 15; Acts 8:33 (2); 21:11, 36; 22:22; 1Cor. 6:15; Eph. 4:31; Col. 2:14; Rev. 18:21. In most of these instances the idea of lifting up and carrying away is implied in order to remove from one place to another.

As Leon Morris says here with regards to Christ “taking away” (or removing) our sin in John 1:29:
The verb is airo, which John uses more than any other New Testament writer (26 times)... [whereas] the idea of “bearing” sin in Heb. 9:28; I Pet. 2:24 is conveyed by anaphero, but there is not likely to be a great difference of meaning. MacGregor, agreeing that the verb airo means not “take upon oneself,” but “take out of the way,” yet says, “But the latter thought, while enriching the former, also includes it, and this Christ did.”.... In the Johannine manner probably both meanings are in mind. (The Gospel According to John, [Grand Rapids: Eerdmans Pub., 1971], n. 61, p. 148).
To remove our sin(s) as John claims, Christ as our vicarious substitute of necessity had to personally bear it, ruling out the idea that He just bore our guilt and not our sin as Hodge believes. And if Christ bore our sin in and upon His person, then He must of necessity also remove it before entering into heaven. For “he who has died has been freed from sin... For the death that He died, He died to sin once for all; but the life He lives, He lives to God. Likewise you also, reckon yourselves to be dead indeed to sin, but alive to God in Christ Jesus our Lord.” (Rom. 6:7, 10-11; NKJV).

D. A. Carson also notes here under John 1:29: “Certainly the verb airo normally means ‘remove,’ ‘take away,’ not ‘bear away in atoning death’ or the like (for which the more common verb is anaphero, cf. Dodd, IFG, pp. 230-238). (The Gospel According to John, [Grand Rapids: Eerdmans Pub., 1991], p. 150).

Godet likewise has this to say under John 1:29: “In order to take away sin, it was necessary that Christ should begin by taking upon Himself the burden of it, to the end that He might be able afterwards to remove it by the work of sanctification. The idea of removing includes, therefore, implicitly that of bearing.” (Commentary on John’s Gospel, [Grand Rapids: Kregel Pub., 1978], p. 313). In other words, the two ideas of “bearing” the burden of sin and “removing” it are not exclusive of one another in God’s scheme of things when it comes to what Christ did both forensically and practically for us. Far be this from Christ just removing our "guilt."

With regards to the laying on of hands, it is no secret that this was the practice in the OT for the burnt offerings, the peace offerings, the sin offerings, and the guilt offerings in Leviticus 1-5 (see also Ex. 29:10-19; Lev. 8:14-22; 2Chr. 29:23). And this was also true for the sin offering on the Day of Atonement in Leviticus 16. And though in these cases the sins of the people were not actually removed from them, for the blood of bulls and goats could not cleanse the inner conscience, these symbolic gestures no doubt spiritually procured the forgiveness of their sins. On the other hand, we clearly see its spiritual use or application in Jacob blessing his children (Gen. 48:14) and in the spiritual confirmation and blessing of individuals throughout the Old and New Testaments (cf. Lev. 24:14; Num. 8:10; 27:23; Deut. 34:9; 2Kin. 11:16; Acts 6:6; 8:17; 13:3; 19:6; Rom. 1:11; 1Tim. 4:14; 2Tim. 1:6; Heb. 6:2). Clearly, when it came to people, the laying on of hands in the Old and New Testaments was no bare gesture, void of any spiritual conference or impartation of some kind. In Romans 1:11, Paul had hoped to come to Rome so “that I may impart unto you some spiritual gift.” In 1Tim. 4:14, Paul told Timothy: “Neglect not the gift that is in thee, which was given thee by prophecy, with the laying on of the hands of the presbytery.” And in this same epistle Paul warns Timothy: “Lay hands suddenly on no man, neither be partaker of other men’s sins: keep thyself pure.” Evidently doing so would reap some kind of tragic spiritual consequences for Timothy. And we see this example of the laying on of hands too suddenly with that of the priests in 2Kin. 11:16, who are said to have laid their hands on the evil queen Athaliah. Who knows what spiritual consequences this also must have reaped for them! In 2Tim. 1:6, Paul again tells Timothy: “stir up the gift of God, which is in thee by the putting on of my hands.” In Acts 8:17-18, Simon the Sorcerer “saw” how that the Holy Spirit was somehow received by that which was imparted through the laying on of hands. And most likely it was the sign of the gift of tongues which accompanied the disciples receiving the Spirit, and not the impartation of the Spirit himself. And the same is said of Paul in Acts 19:6. No doubt, what happened to Christ on the cross was a result of the curse and the heavy hand of the wrath of God that was upon Him in spiritually condemning Him as a sinner in our stead. God’s law in Deut. 21:23 had mandated this for all those under the law. And Christ was made “under the law” in union with His people (Gal. 4:4). Thus Christ being “cursed” actually became the means whereby Christ could identify with His people as their vicarious sin-bearing substitute, so that they could also eventually identify with Him as one who was without sin as their sinless substitute. Christ became all, in all, for all of His elect people.


Christ Our Substitute and Identification (5 of 6)



An Offering With Sin, or Without Sin — Now That is the Question!

Some bible expositors have said concerning “made sin,” in 2Cor. 5:21, that these words just denote Christ being made a “sin OFFERING” without sin, and then refer to some English translations of the Hebrew word used in the OT, and even of the the Greek word used in both the NT and the Greek Septuagint translation as denoting a “sin OFFERING” to substantiate their case. But first of all, even in these cases it is questionable whether “sin” is to be translated “sin OFFERING.”[1] For even though an offering for sin is implied in many of these cases, the Hebrew and Greek words for “sin,” in and of themselves, do not have the meaning “offering” attached to them. It is an interpolation and interpretation, not a literal translation. And even George Smeaton is noted here at this venture with regards to Christ being “made sin,” and what this properly conveys:
Many deem it best to take it as simply equivalent to a sin-offering.... But it deserves notice, in the first place, that throughout this entire passage the apostle makes no use of sacrificial language.... it is evident that the apostle draws a contrast between two things,—between the personal sinlessness of Jesus, and His official position as made sin for us,—and that this contrast is lost by the sacrificial reference. But there is a further antithesis not less strong. Christ is represented as made sin for us, in the same way in which we are made the righteousness of God.... This is unfavorable to our accepting the idea of a sin-offering. It would be quite unsuitable in the second clause, which affirms that we are made the righteousness of God, and therefore it cannot be admitted in the first. [And if not for] the twofold antithesis now mentioned, the rendering “sin-offering” would be unobjectionable....
The words, strictly considered, therefore mean, that by God’s appointment He was made sin, not in mere semblance, but in reality.... our own sins of nature and life—were laid on Him, or transferred from our head to His....
The import of the passage, then, amounts to this: Christ, the sinless One...wrapped Himself in His people’s sin, and was constituted sin...in such a manner that at the bar of God He was no longer innocent. Rather He was made the concentrated sin of the redeemed church, because found among sinners, federally united to them, and charged at the bar of God with all their sins....
The expression, THE SINLESS SIN-BEARER, may be said aptly to describe His earthly career. Certainly they who look merely at His innocence mistake the gospel, if they do not overthrow it. [2]
Now while I appreciate what Smeaton says here, it should not go without saying that Smeaton (like most) viewed all of this objectively and forensically, and not subjectively with regards to our inward sanctification at all. And he oddly even defends the idea of Christ being only an "offering" for sin in Rom. 8:3, and not being "made sin" with our sin in His flesh in that verse as well. But at least here in 2Cor 5:21 Smeaton believed Christ "in reality" bore our sin (and not just our "guilt), in opposition to Charles Hodge. And Smeaton's point is also to be well taken that those who exalt Christ's "innocence" at the expense of Him assuming our sins in an official capacity actually overthrows the gospel, something that even Smeaton himself is sadly guilty of in understanding all of this only in an objective or forensic manner in both Rom. 8:3 and 2Cor. 5:21. And, unfortunately, he even treats 1Peter 2:24 in this same manner as well. So go figure! But I liked what he said so much about Christ not just being an "offering" for sin in 2Cor. 5:21, that I just could not resist quoting him. Here he is absolutely spot on, and I could not have said it any better.

Secondly, this Greek word for “sin” (harmatia) is never used by the NT writers in the sense of an "offering"; unless Heb. 10:6, as quoted from Psm. 40:6 in the Septuagint, can be used as such an example. But even here in the epistle to the Hebrews, and in the Septuagint, you will notice that the English word “offering” is italicized showing that it is not in the original (and the same goes for Heb. 13:11). And so Psm. 40:6 could very well read in both the Old and New Testament as denoted in the Aramaic Bible in Plain English: “burnt peace offerings for sin you have not requested” (OT), and “burnt peace offerings for sins you have not demanded” (NT). Even my Marshall’s Greek-English Interlinear of the NT literally reads: “and burnt offerings concerning sin thou wast not well pleased.” In all honesty, this is really the best way to translate these verses. Many more examples in the OT could be cited in some English translations that denote something that is being done (or offered) “for sin” and not necessarily just called a “sin offering,” absent of any sin. And many of the verses quoted by others in their preferred translations that support their biased idea or viewpoint of a “sin-offering” without sin, are: Ex. 29:14, 36; 30:10; Lev. 4:3-34; 6:17, 25, 30; 6:17, 25, 30; 7:7, 37; 8:2, 14; 9:2-22; 10:16-19; 16:3-27; 23:19; Num. 6:11, 14, 16; 7:16-87; 8:8, 12; 15:24-27; 18:9; 19:9, 17; 28-29; 2Chr. 29; Ezra 6:17; 8:35; Neh. 10:33; Ezk. 40-46. Again, “offering” in all of these verses is an interpolation, not a literal word-for-word translation. I would recommend reading the Jubilee Bible 2000 or the Douay-Rhiems Bible for a better understanding of the Hebrew word chattah (Strong’s: 2403) translated just “sin.” The Brenton Septuagint Translation in its English translation italicizes "offering" in Ex. 29:14 (showing it's not in the original), omits “offering” altogether in Lev. 4:3, translates it as "atonement" in Ezk. 45:19, but then strangely uses "offering" without any restraint whatsoever for all of the rest of these verses noted above; while the actual Greek Septuagint (LXX) does not say “offering” at all, but just “sin,” “the sin,” or “for sin.” The Douay-Rheims Bible is pretty good, and some other translations such as the KJV, Webster’s, CEV, ISV and GWT all follow suit not using “offering” with regards to a handful of these verses noted above, but the Jubilee Bible 2000 is spot on and consistent in its translation each and every time (and I checked every verse in the OT as it relates to this idea of “offering”). With regards to the making of the Jubilee Bible 2000, Biblegateway.com notes how that, “the usage and context tends to define each key word so you won’t need to depend on theological dictionaries or reference materials. Careful attention has been made to properly translate the first usage of each key word, and through to the last occurrence. Then, as the word makes its way across the Old Testament and if we make the correct match with the corresponding Greek word in the New Testament, an amazing pattern emerges. The Jubilee Bible 2000 is the only translation we know of today that has each unique Hebrew word matched and mated to a unique English word so that the usage (number of occurrences and number of verses where the word occurs) sets forth both a very meaningful number pattern and a complete definition of what God means by each word.” After reading the Jubilee Bible 2000 in all of these verses mentioned above, it should come as no wonder to us by now why Paul could likewise understand how Christ was “made sin” in 2Cor. 5:21, and “for sin” in Rom. 8:3. Paul understood it in exactly the same way as the original Hebrew reads, without all the added verbiage, or additions, to God’s Word. In the Jubilee Bible 2000 (as well as in some other translations noted above), it mentions how that the animal designated to be for sin, is actually just simply called: “sin.” And in a couple of places it says, “offered as sin” or “offer the sin,” but never “sin-offering,” as if to give the impression of an offering with no sin in it. With regards to the Jubilee Bible 2000 omitting “offering,” and just translating chattah as sin, see for example Lev. 4:14, which reads: “When the sin, which they have committed, is understood, then the congregation shall offer a young bullock as the sin and bring it before the tabernacle of the testimony.” Verse 21 likewise reads: “And he shall carry forth the bullock outside the camp and burn it as he burned the first bullock; it is the sin of the congregation.” And, finally, verse 29 reads: “And he shall lay his hand upon the head of the sin and slay the sin in the place of the burnt offering.” All of this now begins to make more sense. Christ was made sin, for sin, just as Paul literally describes it for us with regards to these OT sacrifices in 2Cor. 5:21, in combination with Rom. 8:3. It was sin for sin, an eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth. Only this time it was the innocent victim, the unblemished Lamb of God, who took our sin and our guilt, transferring it to His head as the Sinner (or the old man) who was to be condemned and put to death in our stead. Clearly, the OT offerings that were typical of Christ offering His own body were “sin, for sin.” And I think that we have weakened the force and have diminished the idea of what the Holy Ghost has all along been trying to say to us in that these offerings were really made sin, for sin. It is not just a name used to denote an "offering" that is being implied here, but it is an animal (or person, in Christ's case) that stood as "sin" in the place of and on behalf of: “FOR sin”—for our sin! Again, the emphasis isn’t on “offering,” but on an animal that took the place of another and made sinful with our sin and worthy of God’s judgment or wrath. And this is clearly seen in the scapegoat in Leviticus where the people’s sins were symbolically transferred to the goat, with the goat being made as a sinner to be judged in their stead. According to Lev. 16:5, both goats are said to be "for sin" (see Douay-Rheims trans.), and it was actually the goat for the Lord that made the atonement "for sin" (see also Num. 29:11 correctly translated in the Jubilee Bible 2000); but it was for the sins of the people that were placed on the live scapegoat which didn't do the actual atoning for sin. Clearly, the Lord, out of necessity, had to use these two goats (and not just one) to depict these truths. Christ basically wore two hats, so-to-speak. But have no doubt about it, what Christ did, He did for our sin which was placed in and upon His person. Christ wasn't just an "offering" absent of any sin (although He was that too), but an offering with our sin actually placed in and upon Him. And this is the point that is to be emphasized here in the words "for sin." And if all that were not enough, the Englishman, William Rushton (circa 1831), who published the well-known little book, Particular Redemption, has all this to say with regards to Leviticus 16 along with its accompanying passages:
Here, then, we have in a figure first, the real transfer of sin itself to Christ; secondly, the transfer of the sins of a peculiar people, even the children of Israel; and thirdly, the transfer of all their iniquities, all their transgressions, and all their particular sins. In corroboration of this, it is worthy of notice that the word chattah which in the law of Moses is used for the sin offering, properly means sin itself; so that the victim, in consequence of the typical transfer of iniquity to it, was considered a mass of sin; e.g., Lev. 4:21, and al. freq., where the bullock is called a sin offering of the congregation, but the animal is in the Hebrew called sin itself. "And he shall carry forth the bullock without the camp, and burn him as he burned the first bullock, THE SIN of the congregation is he." Also the word ashmah which is translated trespass offering, properly signifies guilt; because the animal typically bore the guilt of the transgressor who brought it for an offering. (Lev. 5:6, 7, 18). "The victims and expiations offered for sins," says Calvin, "were called ashmah a word which properly signifies sin itself. By this appellation, the Spirit intended to suggest, that they were vicarious sacrifices to receive and sustain the curse due to sin. But that which was figuratively represented in the Mosaic sacrifices, is actually exhibited in Christ, the archetype of the figures. Wherefore, in order to effect a complete expiation, He gave his soul, that is, an atoning sacrifice for sin, as the prophet says; so that our guilt, and consequent punishment, being as it were, transferred to Him, must cease to be imputed to us [Inst., vol. 2, 16:6]." [3]
Thirdly, if Paul intends to mean “sin OFFERING” here in 2Cor. 5:21, then we are forced to believe that he uses the same Greek word for "sin" (harmartian) here with two entirely different meanings in the immediate context. And this is believed by those who only for a priori theological reasons cannot bring themselves to believe that Christ was actually made as a sinner in our stead with our sins placed in and upon Him. To say that Christ was made a sin-offering with no sin placed upon Him is absolutely unfounded, being contrary to all of the OT sacrifices that were designated as "sin" and "for sin." Clearly, being “made sin” in this context does not mean to be a “sin-offering,” even though it is part and parcel of Christ being made sin (and if an emphasis is to be placed here on Christ just being an “offering” for sin, then the common Greek word for “offering” could have been easily added here, as in Heb. 10:12, 14). Christ being “made sin” here is in juxtaposition to us “becoming righteousness.” We do not become a righteousness-offering. We become righteousness practically in Christ as opposed to us being made sinners practically in Adam. “He who knew no sin” is not to be understood as: “He who knew no sin offering, was made a sin offering for us, so that in Him we might be become a righteousness offering of God.” Reading this verse this way is unnatural, and an attempt to force upon the text a meaning that just isn’t there when carried out consistently and logically throughout this verse. As David Garland notes: "Interpreting the word as 'sin offering' destroys the parallel structure of the sentence."[4] Like Smeaton had said earlier, Christ has been made sin for us in the same way we are made righteousness, obliterating the idea of Christ just being an "offering"; for if this latter idea were true, then being made the righteousness of God would have to be understood in the same manner as Christ just becoming an offering. The two really stand or fall together, as well as our own personal sin not being reckoned to us in verse 19, and then actually being reckoned to Christ in verse 21 who had never known of such personal sin. Again, in verse 19, Paul had just got through saying that our "sin" (or trespasses) have NOT been imputed or reckoned to us; and then immediately thereafter says Christ was "made sin" who knew of no such sin. Why so? Because Christ was as our Substitute imputed (or reckoned) as guilty for our sin placed upon Him, not for His. Christ took our sin in order to remove it from us so that we would not be imputed for it. This is the explanation (or reason) in verse 21 why our sin is not imputed to us in verse 19. It was transferred to Christ (as Leviticus 16 tells us) so that He could bear the guilt or penalty for our sin as our Vicarious Substitute. If Christ had been suffering on the cross for His own personal sin, it would have been the just reward for His own iniquity. Again, if Christ had Himself transgressed, He could not have suffered for another, because all of His suffering would have been reckoned to His own personal account. But as the case may be, He had to take our sins from us and place them upon His own sinless self so that He could be charged for our sins, not us. If our sin had not been placed upon Christ, then He could not have been justly judged by God and crucify our old man, for there would have been no federal union with His people to identify Him as such like we had in our union with Adam. In union with Adam as our federal head, we all sinned in Adam's sin, and were justly judged or condemned with him for that sin; and as an implicate of that first sin we became depraved. But Christ was never in Adam, experiencing no depravity of nature or of being distanced from God, so of necessity Christ had to have our sins (inclusive of even "the sin" and attending curse of Adam) transferred to Him in order to be judged by God as the representative federal head of His people (inclusive of even Adam and Eve). So Christ was actually made sin with the sins of His people, and we are actually made righteousness with Christ's righteousness. Christ didn't in an abstract manner bear our sin, but concretely, as even Heinrich Meyer notes: "Christ was actually exhibited by God as the concretum of harmartia" (biblehub.com). And so we too in like manner have not become righteousness abstractly, but "concretely" in our person. The words "for us" denotes the abstract idea, whereas Christ in His human nature being "made" sin in juxtaposition to us "becoming" righteousness in our human nature, denotes the concrete. The IVP New Testament Commentary also notes here how that, "In Paul's writings the noun dikaiosyne [righteousness] typically is used of character. It is not merely that we acquire a right standing or do good works; we actually become righteous―although the latter may well presume the former. This is no legal fiction. For in Christ (or perhaps "through Christ," en auto) we truly assume his righteousness, just as Christ assumed our sin (Brown 1978:169)."[5] The song of Zechariah is fitting here. Zechariah states by the Holy Spirit that we “have been delivered from the hand of our enemies, to serve Him without fear in holiness and righteousness all the days of our life.” (Lke. 1:75-75). Again, the Greek word for “righteousness” here is dikaiosyne which no one doubts denotes living righteously in all holiness (cp. also Mat. 5:20; Rom. 6:13, 18, 19; 14:17; 2Cor. 6:14; 9:9; Eph. 4:24; 5:9; 2Tim. 3:16; 1Pet. 2:24). So there is definitely a biblical precedent for understanding “righteousness” in a practical manner, and not just in a forensic manner. And no doubt this is the “righteousness” that we indeed intimately and personally become in Christ in 2Cor. 5:21, and for which we likewise "knew not" of when we were made sin in Adam.

Many are undecided whether us becoming the righteousness of God is either a possessive genitive (God’s righteousness), an objective genitive (God is the object of our righteousness or of our right actions), or a subjective genitive (a righteousness which comes from God to us). But since Christ is said to have been made sin with our sin in His person, it stands to reason that we are actually made righteousness with God’s righteousness in our person, and therefore this can only be construed of as a “subjective genitive.” What was extrinsic to both of us, becomes intrinsic (or subjective) to each of us on a deep, spiritual, and intimate level. Murray Harris, in arguing for us being objectively judicially or forensically reckoned as righteousness with God’s righteousness, verses Christ being objectively judicially or forensically reckoned as guilty with our sins (even though he believes Christ actually bore our sin), refers to Ladd who says that righteousness “in this context [5:21] is not an ethical subjective righteousness any more than the ‘sinfulness’ of Christ is ethical subjective sinfulness.”[6] So, Murray, according to this reasoning of Ladd’s, has determined that Paul is only speaking forensically and not subjectively. But when we read of Christ actually being made sin, this goes beyond the pale of just being outwardly made sin, but being made sin on an internal and intimate level as the son of man, which was just the opposite of “knowing” of any such sin on an intimate and personal level. Harris notes three possibilities for understanding the sense of “sin,” or harmartia, in verse 21. The first, is that “God treated Christ as if He were a sinner or as a sinner”; the second, that as the sinless sin-bearer “Christ [just] bore the penalty [or the guilt] of sin or the divine wrath against human sin” (Charles Hodge and son’s view); and thirdly, that “God actually caused Christ to be sin, that is, to be the very personification of sin. ‘Christ is made one with the reality of sin and its consequences,’...[It is] God’s transference of [the] sinners’ sin on to the sinless one...”[7] In all honesty, the first and third views, as Harris articulates them above, are to me both one and the same. If someone is “the very personification of sin” in their person not just abstractly, but “actually” as Harris states it, then wouldn’t that constitute them as one and the same “as a sinner”? Ironically, Harris argues for this third idea: “We conclude that in v. 21a Paul is not saying at the crucifixion the sinless Christ became in some sense a sinner, yet he is affirming more than that Christ became a sin offering or even [just] a sin-bearer [as Hodge and others claim]. In a sense beyond human comprehension, God treated Christ as ‘sin,’ aligning him so totally with sin and its dire consequences that from God’s viewpoint he became indistinguishable from sin itself.”[8] I’m a little confused. Isn’t becoming “indistinguishable from sin itself” one and the same with being constituted as becoming as a sinner in our stead? And can all of this just really be understood as being only objectively done in a forensic manner, and not subjectively? Where is the sin, if not subjectively place in and upon Christ’s person? The definition of “personification,” as Harris seems to present it above, is embodiment, incarnation, epitome, representation, likeness, or becoming an avatar for something or someone (like in the movie, Avatar, where the avatar internally becomes the very personification of a human being called “Jake”). There is another definition of “personification” which denotes a person or object as abstractly personifying a certain idea, concept or image, but this not how Harris seems to be using it here. And this is certainly not what Christ became. He became a live “avatar,” so-to-speak, for sin, where all of our sins were actually and spiritually “transferred” to Him.

Of a truth, Christ was in fact the very personification of sin in His entire human nature of spirit, soul and body (or spirit/soul and body if you are a dichotomist). Again, this had to be so in order that Christ could crucify who we were on the inside via our union with Adam as the old man, and thus make us a new man. It is Christ’s resurrection that gives us life as a new man; it was His death to spiritual death, and to the sin of that spiritual death, that Christ killed in us as the old man, putting to rest the power and principle behind the sin. This is the import of 2Cor. 5:21 (and even Rom. 8:3): Christ actually being made sin both within His soul and without in His body, and we becoming the righteousness of God both within our souls and without in our bodies. Before we were saved, sin proceeded from the old heart; it wasn’t just a physical or objective issue, but an inward spiritual and subjective issue. This is just one of the things that Christ came to change for us. So of necessity Christ had to take on the sin that proceeded from our old man or inward nature and kill him in us, so that we could rise as a new man in Christ. We must ask ourselves this question: Before being saved, did we bear our sin just “objectively”? How silly is that! How then can it be said that Christ only bore our sin objectively in His body? You would have to believe like Charles Hodge that Christ didn’t even do that, and just say that Christ only bore the “guilt” of our sin, but not our sin. This is the reason why they say that Christ could not have literally borne our sin, because it goes to the very heart or nature behind these sins. Christ being crucified objectively on the cross only in His body, and even only for forensic reasons at that, does nothing for us of who we are subjectively. Dying physically can render the body powerless to sin, but it does nothing for the soul and the inward inclination or disposition to sin. But Christ bearing our sin upon His soul actually crucified (or killed) our inward disposition to sin as well. It had to be so, otherwise we are still alive to our sin, rather than dead to it. And this is in fact what many still believe! But in Romans 6, Paul says we have died (spiritually) to sin in the crucifixion of our old man in Christ in His union and identification with us (6:6). Jesus told the Pharisees, “Cleanse the inside of the cup” (Mat. 23:26). Many also view this as only being only positionally or forensically righteous (while inside we are still sinners through-and-through), but this does NOT cause the outside of our cup to be clean. We need a circumcision (or a cutting away) or killing of our old heart, in exchange for a new heart. Paul calls it “the circumcision of Christ” (Col. 2:11). How so? By Christ being “made sin” (2Cor. 5:21) or “sinful flesh” (Rom. 8:3) in order to crucify it in His person, so that it might be crucified in us according to Romans 6:6 through His resurrection life. We discussed earlier about Christ who was not intimately and personally “acquainted” with sin, had become intimately and personally “acquainted” with sin, even in accordance with Isaiah 53:3. And since sin, as Edward Young states, “is something immaterial, how can one be said to bear it?”[9] Young says that, “The answer is that sin involves not merely an inward corruption of the heart but also guilt before God. In saying that the servant [or Christ] bore our sins, therefore, Isaiah is in reality declaring that he [just] bore the guilt of our sins” in the fact that Christ “bore the punishment that was due to us because of those sins, and that is to say that he was our substitute.”[10] Clearly, no doubt, Christ bore our “guilt,” for Isaiah 53:10 says so; but Young had clearly also alluded to “something immaterial” here in the idea that “sin involves...an inward corruption of the heart.”[11] This is the “something immaterial,” as well as the “guilt,” that Christ bore for us and removed. But all of this still begs the question, and for which Young didn’t give an answer (since he is the one who brought it up in the first place): How did Christ take care of the “inward corruption” of sin if all He did, according to Young, Hodge, and many more who think like them, was to just bear the “guilt”? I think Young actually answers this question for us, without really giving us the answer, when he goes on to say: “It may be that in the violence of the figures used [in Isaiah 53] there is a secondary reference to the actual death of the crucifixion.”[12] And no doubt, to me, this “secondary reference” is the spiritual death that Christ incurred upon His soul in the death of our “inward corruption” known as “the old man.” It is amazing to me how that Edwards got so caught-up in the Lord removing our “guilt” as “something immaterial,” that he entirely overlooked one of the most vital and important aspects of Christ work—the overthrowing of the dominion and power of sin emanating from our former old corrupt hearts.

No doubt, two effects issue from Christ’s redemptive work for us: (1) justification and the forgiveness of sin, and (2) deliverance from the enslaving defilement and power of sin. Redemption, as it affects guilt and procures our justification and remission of sin, is in view in such passages as Rom. 3:24; Eph. 1:7; Col. 1:14 and Heb. 9:15. And redemption, as it affects the enslaving defilement and power of sin, is in view in Titus 2:14 and 1Pet. 1:18. Christ’s redemption on the cross for us is not a bare notion or forensic idea, absent of also redeeming us from the power of sin. The latter actually flows from the former. In Christ’s identification with as a sinner in our stead, He crucified the sinner in us; and in our identification with Christ in His resurrection life and power, He raises us up as saints who are holy and beloved. Christ as mediator entered into a federal relationship with His people in which Adam stood previously in his state of righteousness, in order to merit righteousness and life for us. But if Christ had only merely obeyed the righteous requirements of the law, and had not also in union with us paid the penalty for our sins that were placed upon Him, He would not have won title to righteousness and life for us; He would have left us in the state that Adam was in after the fall. As such, the work of Christ merits for us far more than just the forgiveness of sins; it merits for us also the deliverance from our sins. As the son of man, Christ became completely like us so that we could in turn become completely like Him.

John Murray succinctly notes here: “We may not artificially separate redemption as ransom from the guilt of sin from the other categories in which the work of Christ is to be interpreted. These categories are but aspects from which the work of Christ once for all accomplished must be viewed and therefore they may be said to inter-permeate one another.” [13]

Thus, Murray concludes:
Redemption from the power of sin may be called the triumphal aspect of redemption. In his finished work Christ did something once for all respecting the power of sin and it is in virtue of this victory which he secured that the power of sin is broken in all those who are united to him. It is in this connection that a strand of New Testament teaching needs to be appreciated but which is frequently overlooked. It is that not only is Christ regarded as having died for the believer, but the believer is represented as having died in Christ and as having been raised up with him to newness of life. This is the result of union with Christ. For by this union, Christ is not only united to those who have been given to him, but they are united with him. Hence, not only did Christ die for them but they died in him and rose with him (cf. Rom. 6:1-10; 2 Cor. 5:14, 15; Eph. 2:1-7; Col. 3:1-4; I Pet. 4:1,2). It is this fact of having died with Christ in the efficacy of his death and of having risen with him in the power of his resurrection that insures for all the people of God deliverance from the dominion of sin. It supplies the ground for the exhortations “Even so reckon ye yourselves to be dead indeed to sin but alive to God in Christ Jesus” (Rom. 6:11) and gives force to the apodictic assurance, “Sin shall not have dominion over you” (Rom. 6:14). [14]
Ironically, John Murray (like most in his camp) still believes we have indwelling sin according to his understanding of Romans 7. So it begs the question how these guys can say such things like this above that, “the power of sin is broken,” when they still believe they are “sold as a slave” to it according to Rom. 7:14? Nevertheless, Murray’s point is to be well taken. And if all this isn’t mystical or subjective, then I don’t know what is? For Christ to break the power of sin in us, He had to have in some sense subjectively become us as one who was cursed of God on the tree in His entire human nature, in order that we could become blessed (shall I even say, “righteousness”) in our entire human nature. What Christ did was reciprocal to us, not only in our bodies, but also in our souls—which is the most important aspect to all of this, bar none! So away with such foolish thinking that what happened to Christ, and to us, is not on a “subjective” level, in addition to also being on an “objective” or forensic level.

This sharing in Christ’s death is not just a legal fiction, a form of words to which no inward personal reality corresponds; it is part of the spiritual reality in Christ, a mystery that is there whether we can grasp it or not. No doubt, Christ has taken us with Him in His union and identification with us into His sin-bearing death; and through His death in our union and identification with Him as the sinless Substitute we are taken up into His resurrection of life. As such, this knowledge of Christ’s death for us requires us to see ourselves as spiritually dead to sin, risen and alive for evermore in Him. We who believe have died to sin with Christ painlessly and invisibly (both spiritually and physically) in our solidarity with Him, because He died painfully and publicly on earth and in hell (both physically and spiritually) as our Substitute for us. And the same holds true with what Adam did for us both spiritually and physically, only to be undone or reversed in Christ who is our Second Adam.

Of no doubt, there is more going on here in 2Cor. 5:21 than just a penal satisfaction to justice of just being pronounced either “guilty” or “not guilty.” There is an actual transfer of our personal sins to Christ, and the actual transfer of Christ’s personal righteousness to us. What actually happens to Christ’s own person is reciprocal and antithetical to what actually happens to our own person. Christ being made sin and us being made righteousness cannot be Christ personally being made sin and us NOT personally being made righteousness, and probably thus the reason why many just want to say that Christ was only an “offering” for sin, rather than actually made sin; for the antithesis to Christ actually being made sin in His person is understandably us actually being made righteousness in our person. But as we came to find out, even to say Christ was only an “offering” does injustice to us becoming righteousness; for then “righteousness” would also have to be understood in the sense of only some kind of “offering” as well. Hanging on the cross actually cursed Christ with our sins both physically and spiritually; hanging on faith actually blesses us with Christ’s righteousness both spiritually and physically. When God saw Christ on the cross, He saw us crucified; and when God now sees us, He sees us made alive with Christ. This is where the crucifixion of our old man in juxtaposition to the creation our new man now comes into play here. The forensic aspect to all of this was seen just in passing in verse 19. The practical outworking of all of this is seen in verse 21, where He who knew no sin was made sin so that we MIGHT become the righteousness of God in Him, which, no doubt, was alluded to just earlier in verse 15. And this also agrees with what Peter says, when he says: “who His own self bare our sins in His body upon the tree, that we, having died unto sins, MIGHT live unto righteousness; by whose stripes ye were healed.” (1Pet. 2:24, ASV). “Having died unto sins” (and not “that we might die”) is the correct translation, and takes us back to what Paul said in Romans 6 about us having died to sin in the crucifixion of our old man in order that the body of sin MIGHT be rendered powerless (6:6), and even in Rom. 8:3-4 where Christ is said to have become sinful flesh, condemning it in His person, so that THE RIGHTEOUSNESS OF THE LAW MIGHT BE FULFILLED IN US (KJV, WBT, YLT, et al). Here we see continuity of thought throughout in all these verses that have to do with our sanctification, and not with our justification at all. Peter's words throw a monkey wrench into all of this for those who attempt to twist Paul's words to say things he is not saying (at least not in these instances). The justification unto life came to us via Christ's sinlessness; whereas our sanctification comes in the bearing of our sins in order to remove them and set God's people free from the bondage and ravages of sin, in order to live in all righteousness before Him.

Charles Spurgeon likewise refuted the idea that Christ was just an “offering” for sin, and that He was in fact “made” sin. His comments were so well-stated, that I just could not resist noting them here as well:
Not only has He made Him to be the substitute for sin, but to be sin. God looked on Christ as if Christ had been sin; not as if He had taken up the sins of His people, or as if they were laid on Him, though that were true, but as if He, Himself, had positively been that noxious—that God-hating—that soul-damning thing called sin. When the Judge of all the earth said, “Where is Sin?” Christ presented Himself; He stood before His Father, as if He had been the accumulation of all human guilt of the elect; as if He, Himself, were that thing which God cannot endure, but which He must drive from His presence forever. And now, see how this making of Jesus to be sin was enacted to the fullest extent. The righteous Lord looked on Christ as being sin and, therefore, Christ must be taken outside the camp. Sin cannot be borne in God’s Zion—cannot be allowed to dwell in God’s Jerusalem; it must be taken outside the camp—it is a leprous thing—put it away. Sin must always be cast out from fellowship, from love, from pity. Take Him away, take Him away, you crowd! Hurry Him through the streets and bear Him to Calvary. Take Him outside the camp—as was the beast which was offered for sin outside the camp—so must Christ be who was made sin for us! And now, God looks on Him as being sin, and sin must bear punishment. Christ is punished. The most fearful of deaths is exacted at His hands, and God has no pity on Him. How could He have pity on sin? God hates it! No tongue can tell, no soul can discern the terrible hatred of God to that which is evil, and He treats Christ as if He were sin. Jesus prays—but heaven shuts out His prayer. He cries for water, but heaven and earth refuse to wet His lips except with vinegar. He turns His eyes to heaven, He sees nothing there. How could He? God cannot look on sin, and sin can have no claim on God—“My God, My God,” Jesus cries, “Why have You forsaken Me?” O solemn necessity, how could God do anything with sin but forsake it? How could iniquity have fellowship with God? Shall divine smiles rest on sin? No, no, it must not be! Therefore is it that He who is made sin must bemoan desertion and terror; God cannot touch Him; cannot dwell with Him; cannot come near Him! He is abhorred, cast away. It has pleased the Father to bruise Him. He has put Him to grief. At last He dies. God will not keep Him in life—how could He? Is it not the most necessary thing in the world that sin should be buried? “Bury it out of My sight, hide this corruption,” and lo! Jesus, as if He were sin, is put away out of the sight of God and man as a thing obnoxious!" [15]
Christ clothed Himself with our nakedness when He died on the cross for us; we wear His robe of righteousness! He bore our shame and disgrace; we bear His glory and honor. He endured our sufferings to this end: that our joy might be full, and that His joy might be fulfilled in us!

Again, Christ took upon Himself not only the "guilt" of our sin (as Charles Hodge and son claim), but the sin as well. In the OT, the notion was that the sin of the offerer was transferred and imputed (or reckoned) to the offering, and the offering bore as result of this imputed sin the death-penalty. It was to show forth the substitutive nature and endurance of the offering for the penalty or liability that was due to the people for their sins. And in Leviticus 16 it was to remove them from us to be disposed of by Christ. No doubt, all of this is the blessed doctrine of substitution and identification. So we may now safely and confidently affirm that just as Christ who knew no sin in His person, was made sin in His person; we too who knew no righteousness in our person, become righteousness in our person. Now that makes sense! Paul is imploring us (and not the world in this case), “be reconciled to God”[16] (v. 20), by living righteous lives based upon the fact that Christ has made us into His righteousness. As verse 15 earlier denotes, “He died for all, that those who live should no longer live for themselves but for Him who died for them and was raised again.” And then Paul immediately afterward adds the verse here in question in verse 21 to support his thesis, along with the following verses in 6:1 and 2, where he urges (or “implores,” same Gk. word as in 5:20) the Corinthians to not receive the free and passive grace of God in vain—i.e., void of any action on their part. This is in essence what Paul is also telling the Romans in Rom. 6:19-22: “for as you have yielded your members servants to uncleanness and to iniquity unto iniquity; even so now yield your members servants to righteousness unto holiness. For when you were the servants of sin, you were free from righteousness. What fruit had you then in those things of which you are now ashamed? For the end of those things is death. But now being MADE[17] free from sin, and become servants to God, you have your fruit unto holiness, and the end everlasting life" (King James 2000 Bible). Please also refer to the last two immediate footnotes above for some more thoughts on 2Cor. 5:20-21 and 6:1-2.

F. F. Bruce, in agreement with Matthew Poole's incorrect analysis earlier in part one with regards to Rom. 8:3, likewise has this to say in his commentary: “the sentence was passed and executed on sin in Christ’s ‘flesh,” in His human nature, and thereby in [our] human nature as such.”[18] And to this I would agree! But again, I ask, how could the sentence be passed and executed on our sin if Christ’s entire human nature of spirit, soul and body, at the time of His crucifixion, was without any sin in or upon Him to be judged and atoned for? Our sin had to be in and upon Christ for there to be the “sentence passed and executed on sin…in [our] human nature”—in a human nature with sin in it, not without it. Christ became like flesh of sin, for sin, in order to condemn sin in our human nature (along with the attending sin(s) of our bodies), in order that the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us. And note that in the Greek it is "in" (ev) us, not "with a reference to" us, where the Greek peri would be more fitting here if Paul was only talking about our objective justification.

Charles Hodge, in tandem with Albert Barnes who was also cited earlier in part one concerning Rom. 8:3, expresses similar wording to F. F. Bruce above in his commentary, by stating: “Christ took upon Himself our nature, in order to expiate the guilt of that nature.”[19] But, again, if Christ didn’t take upon Himself, on the cross, our sin-stained human nature, then how could He be said to have taken on “our nature” and “the guilt of that nature” when there was no guilt for any sin placed upon Christ in His human nature to begin with? Of course, many of these men define “guilt” as someone who is personally responsible for sinning—who commits an offense (such as us before being saved)—but then say that while Christ “assumed our guilt” as our substitute by imputation, He didn’t actually assume “our sin” in our nature, in an attempt to absolve Christ of any sin placed in and upon His human nature. This is what they mean by “vicarious” atonement. One who is the substitute for another, but with no sin in or upon His person. Indeed, Christ was a vicarious atonement and substitute for our sin by “imputation,” but He wasn’t a vicarious substitute absent of any sin in or upon His person; He was a substitute with our sin placed in and upon His person. He wasn’t punished as a sinless substitute, assuming only our "guilt," but punished as or “like” someone who had actually Himself sinned. Christ assumed both the penalty and the power of sin for us, and then released us from that penalty and power in His flesh as the spotless lamb of God both with and without our sins. This is what becoming “flesh of sin” (or “sinful flesh”) and “for sin” retains. Christ was "made sin" for our sin that was actually placed upon Him, thus becoming an actual atoning sacrifice "for sin" as both the sinless substitute and the sin-bearing Scapegoat, in accordance with Leviticus 16. Again, not for His sin, mind you, but for ours. And not just on behalf of us, but in the place of and instead of us. Christ identified with us and our sin (both within and without), in order that we can identify with Him and His righteousness (both within and without). Not just forensically, but internally as well. Again, Hodge (and those like him) is thinking only of imputation here as outlined earlier above, absent of any sin imparted in or upon Christ's person at all. But in Christ’s case, both are true with regards to our sins imparted to Him and for which He was reckoned (or imputed) as a sinner in our stead for no personal or inherent sin of His own; in juxtaposition to Adam’s sin in condemning all of us to death through no fault of our own and thus practically making us all sinners who also physically die; and the same goes for Christ's righteousness justifying us unto life through no work of our own, along with Him practically giving us life and sanctifying us and also raising us up physically to life someday. As John Murray has succinctly stated: “Our union with Christ in his death and resurrection must not be bereft of its intimacy, but with equal jealousy it must be interpreted in terms of Spiritual and mystical relationship” (Romans, vol. 1, p. 218; emphasis mine). This is not to say that Murray, or anyone else who I quote in this article, is in total agreement with me on everything I am saying, but just to say that what Adam did to us, what occurred to Christ on the cross on our behalf, and what Christ did for us as a result of both His death and resurrection, was was no bare notion or idea of just pronouncing people "guilty" or "not guilty."

In the OT, Aaron placed his hands upon the head of the Scapegoat to symbolically depict the transference of the people’s sins upon the sacrifice. But at the same time, it wasn’t a bare or empty gesture void of any spiritual import or conveyance. It may have done nothing at that time internally to “make the worshiper perfect in conscience” (cf. Heb. 9:9; NASB), to "take away sin" (Heb. 10:4, 11), or to “put an end to sin” (cf. Dan. 9:24) as Christ ultimately came to do, but it nonetheless absolved them of the guilt of their outward sins, signifying even greater things to come. Aaron was to “confess over it all the wickedness and rebellion of the Israelites—all their sins—and PUT THEM ON the goats head….The goat will carry on itself all their sins to a solitary place…” (Lev. 16:22). God made that sacrifice become their sin-bearing sacrifice which personally bore the guilt of the offending sinner as if their sin was in fact its own sin. Note that it was not just in bearing the “guilt” of the sin, but signified the actual bearing of the “sin” of the offenders as well in order to take it away from us experientially in our person. This is why Paul could say that Christ was “made sin” and took on “sinful” flesh (or flesh “of sin”), and how Peter could say, “He Himself bore our sins in His body” (1Pet. 2:24). And get this, Peter adds, “so that we might die to sins and live to righteousness,” the very same thing expressed by Paul earlier above in 2Cor. 5:21 where we “might become” (same aorist subjunctive[20]) the righteousness of God practically in our lives, based upon what Christ has done for us internally. We are talking about a lifestyle here; our sanctification. Our justification before God is not really what is at the forefront here. That is spoken of elsewhere (cf. Isa. 53:11b; Rom. 3:24, 26, 28; 4:3-5, 11, 24-25; 5:1, 9, 15-19; 8:30-34; Gal. 3:6-9, 24). Paul (as well as Peter) is dealing with the practical side of our being made the righteousness of God intrinsically, not extrinsically. “Righteousness” isn’t just an external forensic act, it has become internal in us as well in our identification with Christ as a new man; and in order to be worked out in our bodies over time. And the term “righteousness” is often used in this manner throughout the Scriptures, as we just saw earlier in Rom. 6:18-21 (see also Mat. 5:6, 20; 21:32; Lke. 1:75, et al). I like how the International Standard Version (ISV) translates 2Cor. 5:21: "God made the one who did not know sin to be sin for us, so that God's righteousness would be produced in us." The Good News Bible is not bad either: "Christ was without sin, but for our sake God made him share our sin in order that in union with him we might share the righteousness of God." The verse literally translated, reads: "The One having known no sin [experientially], He made sin [experientially] for us, so that we might become [experientially] the righteousness of God in Him." [21]

So, according to 2Cor. 5:21, Rom. 8:3, Leviticus 16 (and many more passages), Christ didn’t just “assume” our “guilt,” but “our sins” as well; He was pronounced guilty as charged, just as if He himself had sinned our sins. He wasn’t a mock substitute, but a real and actual substitute in every sense of the word—something unheard of in a secular court of law—and which makes it even all the more supernatural and virtually impossible for a common man to do or even be charged for. But just as Adam’s sin was transferred to us through no fault of our own, so too was our sin transferred to Christ through no fault of His own; and in turn Christ transferred His own righteousness to us through no good deed of our own so that we might live as righteous people are suppose to live; no longer as sinners but as saints (or as holy ones).

Charles Hodge goes on to say immediately after what he said above: “the expiation must be made in the nature which had sinned.”[22] It is not clear what Hodge is talking about here. But I will give him the benefit of the doubt and assume that what he is saying is that while Christ in His own human nature was without sin, He assumed our human nature (yet without the sin) in order to satisfy God’s justice and pronounce us “not guilty,” or, in his own words earlier noted above, “to expiate the guilt.” That this much is to be determined in what Hodge is saying here in this latter part of my statement, there can be no denying. And the rest of his commentary bears this out. Thus Hodge erroneously concludes that what Christ did here in Rom. 8:3, He did not do in order to condemn or put an end to sin in us (because Hodge still believes it to be in us according to his view of Romans 7), but only to justify us before God; to only “expiate the guilt.” According to Hodge, what Christ did He did not do within us in order that we may keep the law, but to only satisfy the laws demands for us in order to justify us. This is how he understands the law in verse 4 being fulfilled in us. It is positionally through Christ, and not experientially in our own person. And I dealt with all of that earlier, so I won't belabor that again here. Only to say again that the two genitives of possession, "the law of the Spirit" and "the law of sin and death," do not denote the Spirit of the Mosaic Law or the sin and death of the Mosaic Law, but are denoting the principle or power of each, as "the law of the Spirit" clearly denotes, similar to "the law of faith" in Rom. 3:27. So, according to Hodge, it is not what Christ does "within" us, but outside of us; not intrinsically but extrinsically. But, as we came to understand of 2Cor. 5:21, justification is not the theme in either of these cases. The theme in both Romans 8 and 2Corinthians 5 is our sanctification. And until one crosses over that hurdle in their mind of seeing these verses in that manner, they will just not even be able to receive what I am saying.

Again, for those who do not view Rom. 8:1-3ff as a deliverance from sin, but only as justification from sin, most (but not all) will likely be naturally inclined to believe Romans 7 as the nominal Christian experience with no real deliverance in sight whatsoever; relying solely on justification from their sin, rather than on their emancipation from their indwelling sin. For them, “no condemnation” means, regardless of still being the sinner that they believe they are according to Romans 7, they will never be condemned as sinners so long as they are now in Christ. As true as this may be, this is not what Paul is talking about here. Paul’s theme, in Romans 6-8, is emancipation from the slavery of sin in which being “under the law” and “sold as a slave under sin” incited. Being no longer “under the law” but “under grace” (Rom. 6:14; 7:1-6) now emancipates us practically from sin. What the law was powerless to do in us, when we still had the sinful, carnal human nature, Christ now does in and through us by giving us a new nature called “the new man” who is a "new creation" with a "new heart." Our old sinful heart has been entirely removed (or circumcised), with a new heart now ruling the roost (see Ezk. 11:19; 36:26).

So, in getting back to our subject at hand, if there was no sin placed in and upon Christ’s human nature to bear in spirit, soul and body, then what kind of expiation for sin actually occurred? None whatsoever! Maybe just for the "guilt" of those sins, which Hodge and company believes, but not for the remediation of those sins. But just the opposite did in fact take place in Christ: “He Himself bore our sins in His body on the tree, so that we might die to sins and live for righteousness” (1Pet. 2:24). This doesn't sound like Christ just bearing our "guilt." As said before, how can we “die to sin,” if Christ didn’t become us in our spirit, soul and body in order for us to likewise internally, and eventually externally, die to sins and live for righteousness as even Rom. 6:6 declares of us? And just crucifying our outward bodies of flesh does us no good; we must be crucified and killed within, that we may live for God through our souls (our mind, will and emotions) and eventually without in our physical mortal bodies. This is what the inward spiritual circumcision is all about. It is a cutting away or a crucifixion of our old inner natural man and heart of stone, in order that we may be given a new heart transplant of flesh that puts to death (or puts an end to) our own self-determining wills and the deeds of our fleshly mortal bodies. This is truth, brethren, as it is told to us in the Bible. According to Rom. 6:6, Christ crucified our old sinful human nature (aka, the old man) and the body that sins, in a death that occurred in Christ's entire human nature on the cross. Both a body that is now dead to sin, and a dead sinful nature (or old man), has rendered sin powerless over our lives. This is what being “dead to the sin” means. And Paul now simply says, “reckon yourselves to be dead indeed to the sin and alive unto God in Christ Jesus” (Rom. 6:11; lit. trans.). This is the practical aspect of all this in our psyche and in our physical mortal bodies, based upon what has happened to us internally in the cutting-away (or circumcision) of our former old man from our physical bodies; with that small token of the flesh that was circumcised from the males in the OT being a sign of much greater things to come; where our entire bodies would one day be severed from our old man in the spiritual circumcision of Christ from the inside out. This is now a reality for all of us who have been baptized with the spiritual baptism of Christ (cf. Rom. 6:1ff). And this is exactly what Paul had told the Christians at Colossae: “in Whom you were also circumcised with a circumcision made without hands, in the putting off of the body of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ” (Col. 2:11; lit. trans.). The “body of the flesh” here isn’t the sinful nature that some have erroneously said is being put off; that occurred in the spiritual circumcision of our spirit (or heart) made without human hands. Our fleshly human body is what is being spoken of here as being “put off” and away from our old sinful nature as old clothing, in order that our bodies might now live unto righteousness and be clothed with Christ. The Greek word soma here for “body” is never used in the NT with regards to the sinful nature, the word “flesh” is reserved for that, albeit not here in this particular case in Colossians. The word “body” means exactly this: the body “of the flesh” of humans, as opposed to other bodies of other entities such as those described for us in 1Cor. 15:35ff. Paul had just got through using it in this sense with regards to Christ’s own physical body in Col. 1:22, “in the body of the flesh of Him,” and this was most likely said this way with regards to Christ to counter any Gnostic beliefs. Every spirit that didn’t confess that Jesus Christ had come “in the flesh” was not of God. To deny the incarnation of the Son of God as having come in human flesh was in essence to be a denial of God Himself.

Now some of the same mindless babble or thought, as noted earlier above by others concerning Rom. 8:3, is expressed also by R. Kent Hughes in his commentary on Romans, when he writes: “Christ took on man’s flesh (human nature) without becoming a sinner.”[23] And then he immediately quotes the venerable Charles Cranfield as if to buttress his arguments, who says: “…the Son of God assumed the selfsame fallen human nature that is ours, but…in His [Christ’s] case that fallen human nature was never the whole of Him.”[24] First of all, how can one take the selfsame “fallen” human nature as ours and yet it never be the whole of him? This doesn’t make any sense whatsoever. And to add to all of this confusion, Hughes immediately states in his own words after quoting Cranfield: “Thus His flesh (his human nature) remained strong and unfallen.”[25] Are you just as confused as I am? This is nothing more than a bunch of double-talk. Like I said, “mindless babble.” Of course, all of this begins to make more sense when we realize that Hughes is quoting Cranfield out of context. I have Cranfield's commentaries, and what Cranfield is saying is that Christ “never ceased to be the Eternal Son of God,” which Hughes has conveniently omitted at the end of Cranfield’s statement above, and then twists it in support of his own thesis that Christ’s human nature remained “unfallen.” What Cranfield meant by saying that it “was never the whole of Him” is that Christ never ceased to be Deity, in spite of the fact that He actually assumed our sinful fallen human nature (see footnote after his quote below). Cranfield’s point is not that Christ never assumed our fallen nature as Hughes erroneously asserts, but that He never ceased to be the Son of God, in addition to having a fallen human nature. And so Cranfield concludes his point by saying,
…the use of ὁμοίωμα [likeness] here was...to take account of the fact that the Son of God was not in being sent by His Father changed into a man, but rather assumed human nature while still remaining Himself [the Son of God]. On this view the word ὁμοίωμα [likeness] does have its sense of 'likeness'; but the intention is not in any way to call in question or to water down the reality of Christ’s σἀρξ ἁμαρτίας [sinful flesh], but to draw attention to the fact that while the Son of God truly assumed σἀρξ ἁμαρτίας [sinful flesh], He never became sinful flesh and nothing more [with the emphasis being here on “nothing more”], nor even σἀρξ ἁμαρτίας [sinful flesh] indwelt by the Holy Spirit and nothing more..., but always remained Himself [as the second Person of the Trinity]. [26]
Again, if Hughes’ argument is correct (which it isn’t), how can one take on or assume another’s “fallen” nature and not somehow retain that same fallen nature within themselves until it is eventually overturned? And this is exactly what Christ has done for us! All of our sins and sufferings were placed inwardly and outwardly upon Christ so that He could crucify our sinful human nature in its entirety in order that we may live righteous lives before God. If our “fallen” human nature wasn’t Christ’s to crucify, then our fallen nature was not crucified. And if that is the case, then we are all still sinners bent on sinning with a still prevalent fallen sinful nature (which is what many still believe). It is one thing to say that one “assumes the guilt” of another, but quite another thing to say that one “assumed the selfsame fallen human nature that is ours,” but then not actually do so. That's hypocrisy! Again, this is nothing more than double-talk. No, Christ “actually” assumed both “our guilt” and “our sin” in His spirit, soul and body. And as John Calvin once wisely remarked, “certainly had not His soul shared in the punishment, He would have been a Redeemer of bodies only.”[27] The early church father Irenaeus agreed: “who gave His own soul for our soul and His own flesh for our flesh.”[28] And being that these men are dichotomists, when they say “soul” they also mean spirit. Reformed baptist pastor John Gill likewise notes on the phrase “flesh of sin” (or “sinful flesh”): “flesh is not to be taken strictly for a part of the body, nor for the whole body only, but for the whole human nature, soul and body.”[29] To this I agree! What Christ suffered, He suffered in His spirit, soul and body so that He could redeem our spirit, soul and body—our entire human nature—not just a “part” of it. Of course, men who often say such things as these above would disagree as to what it was that Christ actually suffered in his spirit, with most stopping short of the idea that He assumed our sinful nature, but the point is to be well taken that Christ suffered punishment in His spirit, and not just in His body. And we will see later that many of the reformers referred to Christ's death as both a spiritual death and a physical death.

To my amazement though, Martin Luther actually agrees with me. He taught that “the prophets did foresee in spirit, that Christ should become the greatest transgressor, murderer, adulterer, thief, rebel, and blasphemer, that ever was or could be in the world,”[30] and how He was “not an innocent person and without sins; is not now the Son of God…but a sinner which hath and carrieth the sin of…all men in His body: not that He Himself committed them, but that He received them upon His own body, that He might make satisfaction for them with His blood.”[31] And again, “He was accursed, and of all sinners, the greatest.”[32]

Again, John Gill, in agreement with Luther, and even with what I am saying all along in this article, writes:
He was made sin itself by imputation; the sins of all his people were transferred unto him, laid upon him, and placed to his account; he sustained their persons, and bore their sins; and having them upon him, and being chargeable with, and answerable for them, he was treated by the justice of God as if he had been not only a sinner, but a mass of sin; for to be made sin, is a stronger expression than to be made a sinner: but now that this may appear to be only by imputation, and that none may conclude from hence that he was really and actually a sinner, or in himself so, it is said he was ‘made sin’; he did not become sin, or a sinner, through any sinful act of his own, but through his Father’s act of imputation, to which he agreed; for it was ‘he’ that made him sin: it is not said that men made him sin.[33]
Since John Gill was the pastor and forerunner to Charles Haddon Spurgeon at the New Park Street Chapel, later called, Metropolitan Chapel, then what follows in part six will come as no surprise to us where Spurgeon got all of his notions or ideas from about Christ. It was, no doubt, from one of his predecessors, John Gill. And, no doubt, their revelation in these matters was passed on to them by none other than Christ Himself through His Spirit of revelation.

Click here for part 6.


Footnotes:

[1] For example, in Lev. 5:6, some translations prefer not to add to God’s word and to just leave the word “sin” translated as “sin,” and not as “sin offering.” The Douay-Rheims Bible reads: “And of its blood he shall sprinkle the side of the altar, and whatsoever is left, he shall let it drop at the bottom thereof, because it is for sin.” The Jubilee Bible 2000 similarly reads: “and he shall sprinkle of the blood of the sin upon the side of the altar; and the rest of the blood shall be wrung out at the bottom of the altar; it is sin.” I personally like these translations, for they emphasize the actual sin itself that is being dealt with and not just the “offering” for sin.
[2] The Apostle’s Doctrine of the Atonement (Edinburgh: Banner of Truth, 1991), p. 224, 226, 228, 229).
[3] Pages 66-67. Words in brackets mine. Though these words of Calvin read a little differently in my English copy, the sense is still the same. The "guilt" (or ashmah) is for sin; and the sacrifices became "guilty" due to the people's sins that were transferred to them.
[4] The New American Commentary, 2 Corinthians (Nashville: Broadman and Holman Pub., 1999), p. 300.
[5] Accessed online at: biblegateway.com. Word in brackets mine.
[6] The New International Greek Testament Commentary (NIGTC) The Second Epistle to the Corinthians (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 2005), p. 455. Words in brackets Murray’s.
[7] Ibid, p. 453. Emphasis and words in brackets mine.
[8] Ibid, p. 454. Emphasis and words in brackets mine.
[9] Isaiah, vol. 3, p. 347.
[10] Ibid., pp. 347-348. Words in brackets mine.
[11] Ibid.
[12] Ibid.
[13] The Death of Christ; accessed online at: https://www.monergism.com/death-christ.
[14] Ibid.
[15] Christ—Our Substitute; sermon: 310.
[16] For those who cannot bring themselves to believe Paul is telling us to be reconciled to God, due to the fact that they think Paul is talking about our justification here and not our sanctification, they have concocted the notion that this isn’t what Paul is commanding us to do, but what we are to tell others to do who are not saved. They stress the “passive” voice of this verb here to denote that it isn’t something we do, but what God does. But this need not pose a problem for us, for even though we are told elsewhere by Paul to work out our own salvation, it is God nevertheless who is passively at work within us both to will and to act according to His good pleasure (cf. Php. 2:12-13). So this verse in 2Corinthians could very well read paraphrased: “Let God reconcile you to Himself.” We are to work out our reconciliation which He initially begins in us, and who will also carry it out unto completion until the day of Christ Jesus (cf. Php. 1:6). We see this active and passive idea in Rom. 6:6 and Gal. 5:24 with regards to the crucifixion of our old man (also called “the flesh or “the sinful nature”). In Rom. 6:6, in the Greek, our old man has been passively crucified by Christ; in Gal. 5:24, in the Greek, Paul shows our active participation in this past crucifixion through obedience of belief, saying nothing of the fact that this faith (or “belief”) is also not of ourselves but the gift of God (cf. Eph. 2:8; Php. 1:29; 2Pet. 1:1). But faith nevertheless is our “active” response to God. Sometimes Paul stresses the “passive” nature in all of this, and sometimes the “active” response on our part; but we should not be too quick to jump to a conclusion that our reconciliation with God is not also something that is worked out in us over time because of the “passive” nature of a verse. One just shows God’s side in all of this; the other our side. Here in 2Corinthians Paul used the aorist passive imperative, and does not mean as Lenski in his commentary asserts that we are to tell unbelievers, “be once and for all reconciled.” This “aorist” tense in the “imperative” is also used in Col. 3:5 with regards to us no less, when Paul says, “Put to death the members of your earthly body.” Here Paul uses the aorist active imperative denoting something that we are to still decisively once and for all do. Such is the idea presented to us in 2Corinthians, only it is God who is at work within us both to will and to do according to His good pleasure. Paul continues in 2Cor. 6:1, “And working together with Him, we also urge you [or, exhort you] not to receive the [free and passive gift of the] grace of God in vain (NASB[a]); i.e., void of any response on our part (cp. 1Cor. 15:10). No doubt these exhortations are to the Corinthian believers. There are no chapter breaks in the Greek. Paul is continuing where he left off in 5:21. The first two verses of chapter 6 are closely linked to the last paragraph in the preceding chapter. And some translations actually include these verses with the last part of chapter 5, and then start a new paragraph in 6:3 (see NIV, HCSB, NLT, GNT, CEV). The Greek verb for “urge” (parakalountos) in 6:1, is the same verb used in 5:20 and translated “implore.” Using the same verb ties both of these verses together nicely, and the quotation from Isaiah in in 2Cor. 6:2 explains the urgency behind Paul’s appeal, “Be reconciled to God. Work together with Him with no empty response on your part.”

And if all that were not enough, this aorist passive verb in the imperative mood occurs again twice in Mat. 5:24 and 1Cor. 7:11. In Matthew, an offerer is commanded to receive the passive reconciliation from an offended party before offering his gift on the altar; while in 1Corinthians, the wife is commanded to receive the passive reconciliation from her husband. Were the offerer or the wife to remain purely passive in and of themselves, there would have been no need for the imperative. Likewise, God has passively initiated a reconciliation with us through Christ and now expects us as believers to immediately and without wavering respond. Clearly, reconciliation involves much more than just our justification on God’s part; it requires on our part immediate obedience as well to His commands unto our sanctification and fellowship (or reconciliation) with Him. David Garland, in quoting Gloer, writes: "While this [reconciliation] is, indeed, the 'universal missionary entreaty' of the church to the world, in this context [of 2Cor. 5:21] it is addressed to the Corinthian Christians who are alienated from Paul and highlights the continual claim of the new way of living in Christ."[b] Calvin agrees: "Be reconciled. It is to be observed, that Paul is here addressing himself to believers." So why does Paul implore those who are already believers to be reconciled to God? They had already accepted the gospel message. Calvin explains it that we sin everyday, therefore we must be reconciled every day. But the aorist tense used here would not be suited to refer to something that must be repeated everyday. It is to be noted here that the aorist tense is also used above in Mat. 5:24 and 1Cor. 7:11 to note the immediate action or attention of those to whom these exhortations are addressed; and the aorist tense seems to describe this more effectively as something that should not be drawn-out over a long period of time, but something that should become immediate and final. Such is Paul's exhortation here to the Corinthians in 2Cor. 5:21. Thus, Calvin's conclusions are unfounded that our being reconciled to God need be a daily occurrence, especially since some believers (such as myself) don't sin on a daily basis. And if we do, what does that tell us about such a person who continually sins day-in and day-out? That they have a form of godliness, but deny the power thereof in their practice?

Notes to footnote above:
[a] Words in brackets mine.

[b] The New American Commentary, 2 Corinthians (Nashville: Broadman and Holman Pub., 1999), n. 823, p. 298.
[17] “Being made free” here is an aorist passive participle verb. It is in the “passive” voice which denotes us having been made free by the action of another outside of ourselves so that we will live holy lives before God. In 2Cor. 5:21 it says God “made” Christ to be sin (aorist active indicative) that we “might” become (aorist middle subjunctive) the righteousness of God. God actively made the Son to become sin in His flesh for us, and made us free internally from that sin, according to Rom. 6, that we “might” become the righteousness of God lived out in our mortal bodies. In other words, what God "made" Christ to be has been reversed in us. Now, granted, the verb (or word) for “being made free” in Romans is different from the verb (or word) for being “made” sin in Second Corinthians, but the point being noted here is that we are made free from sin, in juxtaposition to Christ being made sin so that we can become righteous.
[18] F. F. Bruce, Romans (Downers Grove: IVP, 1985), p. 163. Words in brackets mine.
[19] Charles Hodge, Epistle to the Romans (Carlisle: Banner of Truth, 1835), p. 253.
[20] The “subjunctive” mood in the Greek language denotes something that is a possibility for us based upon us meeting certain criteria. This is not justification here, but sanctification. We haven’t been made righteousness (as true as this may be), but we “become” the righteousness of God over time in our bodies. This “aorist subjunctive” mood is used also in Rom. 6:6b, where Paul says: “that the body of sin might be annulled (or rendered powerless).” Sin doesn’t stop dead in its tracks; it’s a process of growth after having had our old man crucified, as also mentioned in verse 6. In a similar manner, the righteousness spoken of here by Paul in 2Cor. 5:21 isn’t imparted to us in an instant (as true as that may also be in making us a new man), but is a process to be worked out in our lives over time based upon what Christ has done to our sinful human nature, when He was “made sin” on the cross for us. As Jamieson, Fausset and Brown succinctly note here on 2Cor. 5:21: “not the same Greek as the previous ‘made.’ Rather, ‘might become.’”
[21] Words in brackets mine to give us the true sense.
[22] Charles Hodge, Epistle to the Romans (Carlisle: Banner of Truth, 1835), p. 253. Again, Hodge is thinking about a “human” nature without sin, as most men like him tend to be saying. They believe Christ assumed our guilt in a human nature, but not in a sinful one; Christ assumed the “guilt” of the offender, but not the sin.
[23] R. Kent Hughes, Romans (Wheaton: Crossway, 1991), p. 150. Words in parenthesis his. Emphasis in bold and italics mine.
[24] Ibid. Words in brackets and emphasis in bold and italicization mine.
[25] Ibid. Words in emphasis and italicized mine; words in parenthesis his.
[26] C. E. B. Cranfield, A Critical and Exegetical Commentary on the Epistle to the Romans, Vol. 1 (Edinburgh: T. and T. Clark, 1975), p. 381; emphasis and words in brackets mine. Cranfield lists five arguments in his commentary concerning what Romans 8:3 might be saying to us. In the fifth argument, mistakenly quoted by Hughes, Cranfield actually supports as biblical. The second argument, which Cranfield does not support, reads as such: “Paul introduced ‘likeness’ in order to avoid implying that the Son of God assumed fallen human nature. The sense being, ‘like our fallen flesh, because really flesh, but only like, and not identical with it, because unfallen.’ This, though it is the traditional solution, is open to the general theological objection that it was not unfallen, but fallen, human nature which needed redeeming.” (ibid., p. 380; emphasis mine). The other three arguments are not even worth noting here. It is the two noted above that are pertinent to this discussion at hand.
[27] John Calvin, Institutes of the Christian Religion (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1975), Book II, XVI, 12, p. 445.
[28] As quoted in Francis Turretin’s Institutes of Elenctic Theology (Phillipsburg: Presbyterian and Reformed Pub., 1994), vol. 2, p. 354. Emphasis mine.
[29] Gill’s Exposition on the Entire Bible online at Biblehub. com.
[30] Martin Luther, Luther on Galatians, (London Edition, 1838), pp. 213-215; as quoted by Albert Barnes in his commentary on Galatians, pp. 334-335.
[31] Ibid.
[32] Ibid.
[33] See John Gill’s commentary online at: www.biblehub.com