Wednesday, May 21, 2014

Christ Our Substitute and Identification (1 of 6)


I know what some of you might be thinking: Why write another article on Christ being our substitution and identification? Simple, right? Not so simple! More needs to be said. For many, what I am about to say will not be palatable for them. They just won’t get it. They have too many hurdles to overcome with regards to the meaning of certain passages of Scripture; even with such ideas of us no longer having the old corrupt sinful human nature (or the old man with the old heart); or even understanding us as no longer being the person that Paul describes for us in Romans 7, which many have correctly ascertained as indeed referring to the old man or the old human nature as inherently sinful. Until one crosses over those foreboding hurdles, all will remain an enigma, a mystery. Having eyes they will just not perceive; and having ears they will just not hear. Indeed, many will cringe at what I am about to talk about. But, nevertheless, it is biblical. It is the children's bread which many know not of. Indeed, of a truth, God has spoken to us. Christ as our Substitute has completely identified with us, so that we in turn can completely identify with Him; not just in theory but in practice; not just positionally but in righteous living as well. John MacArthur has boldly and without hesitancy asserted before all: “So righteous and holy is this new self [or new man] that Paul refuses to admit that any sin comes from the new creation in God’s image....Paul places sin in the believer's life in the body….he will not allow that new inner man to be given responsibility for sin.”[1] So the real question now is: Do YOU believe that? If not, then something is extremely deficient in your faith. And I am here, by God's grace, to hopefully help and make up for that deficiency. So let’s get started.

The consensus among most bible expositors with regards to “flesh” (Gk. sarks) as being used in its depreciatory ethical/moral sense of the “sinful human nature” in Romans 7-8, is a given. So, based upon that note, let us translate Rom. 8:1 with verse 3 accordingly:
Therefore there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus; who walk not according to the sinful human nature (or “flesh;” Gk., sarka) but according to [the nature of] the Spirit…. For what the Law was powerless to do, in that it was weakened by the sinful human nature (or “flesh;” Gk., sarkos), God [did by] sending His own Son in the likeness of the sinful human nature (“of flesh of sin,” or “sinful flesh;” Gk., sarkos hamartias), and for sin, condemned the sin in the sinful human nature (or “the sin in the flesh”; Gk., ten harmartian en te sarki).
With the omission of the latter part of verse 1 in most early manuscripts withstanding, the problem for many commentators is whether or not we should remain consistent in Romans 7-8 in understanding “flesh” in these chapters as referring to the sinful human nature when referring to men in general, and then to Christ’s “flesh” here in verse 3 as just referring to His human flesh, yet without sin in it. But as unsettling as this may sound for us, Paul is consistently in context talking about human flesh with sin in it. Even I almost “cringe” at the contemplation of this, and what it entails for us in believing what really happened with our Substitute for sinners. But just in case anyone should misunderstand Paul as saying that Christ just came in the “likeness of human flesh,” Paul says Christ came in the likeness of flesh “of sin.” Christ wasn’t just “of flesh,” as many other verses elsewhere denote, but “of flesh of sin” (or of “sinful flesh” as denoted in most translations[2]). Again, not just of ordinary human flesh as is commonly expressed in many other verses in the NT with this Greek word “sarks,” but of flesh with sin actually in it. In Christ’s entire human nature within and without made up of spirit, soul and body (or just spirit/soul and body if you are a dichotomist), Christ took on sinful flesh—a human nature tainted with sin. All of our sins were placed in and upon Christ. Not only in His body, but in His soul as well. And we will talk more about this shortly.

Now, it became very evident to me while studying this subject, that Christ had to have died a death spiritually in His human spirit (and even many of the reformers to some degree understood that much, as you will soon discover). But what did this really entail? It had to be all in us, or only a part in us. And thus just one of the reasons why many of the reformers (as well as many in the church) could not bring themselves to believe that Christ became “all” that was in us, but only a “part” of us, leaving us “part” old man and “part” new man; “part” renewed and “part” unrenewed; “part” regenerate and “part” unregenerate. What a travesty to the truth. And Christians have been duped by this intricately woven web of deceit, unpretentiously swallowing this idea about themselves hook, line and sinker. Well, I am here to unravel it all and remove the hook that has been so deeply set within. Not with pliers, mind you, for they won’t do. But with surgical precision the hook must be removed. I am on a mission to march around this insidious and foreboding giant-of-a-wall until it all comes tumbling down. Even if it takes just one brick or stone at a time to do so. My mission is the mission of the gospel of Jesus Christ in setting at liberty those who have been bound with chains of sin. That is our message to those who are sitting in darkness—bar none! Everything else takes a back seat. As such, this message is second to none.

So, it is along these lines of thinking that I would like to say that I am fully convinced, along with many others, that the Scriptures depict for us that Christ became entirely as us in His human spirit, soul and body so that He could also liberate us entirely in our human spirit, soul and body. Jamieson, Fausett, and Brown note here under Rom. 8:3 that this does not mean, “that He took our nature with all its properties save one; for sin is no property of humanity at all, but only the disordered state of our souls, as the fallen family of Adam; a disorder affecting, indeed, and overspreading our entire nature, but still purely our own.”[3] Henry Alford's acute awareness of the Greek even takes it a step further: “the flesh whose attribute and character was sin. The gen[itive] implies far more—(not merely the contamination by, but) the belonging to and being possessed by [sin].”[4] Did you catch that? Flesh "possessed by sin"! This is a genitive of possession marking Christ's flesh, in this particular case, as possessed with sin. Meyer likewise notes here at this venture: “Many others take [in the flesh] as meaning [just] the body of Christ; holding that in this body sin has been put to death at the same time…; or that the punishment of sin has been accomplished on His body… But against this it may be urged, that plainly ἐν τῇ σαρκί [in the flesh] corresponds deliberately to the previous διὰ τῆς σαρκός [through the flesh]…;”[5] It was "through" the flesh that Christ came to condemn the power of sin "in" the flesh, not "on" His flesh. Meyer adds: “God has deposed sin from its rule in the σάρξ [flesh] (its previous sphere of power), thereby that He sent His own Son into the world in a phenomenal existence similar to the sinful corporeo-psychical human nature.[6]

As such, Christ not only dealt with our outward practice of sin in our body, but with our inward disposition of sin as well in our spirit (aka, the “old man” or the "natural" man) in his entirety. Christ not only “justified” us, but He has set at liberty them that were bruised internally as well by dealing a death-blow to the power behind sin. All of our sins both within and without of the flesh that are mentioned in Gal. 5:19-21, and then some, Christ took in and upon His flesh and crucified for us in Gal. 5:24 with all of its passions and desires (sinful cravings or lusts), in order to liberate us within. Even John Calvin ventured so far as to say that, “Christ underwent our infirmities, that he might be more inclined to sympathy, and in this respect also there appeared some resemblance of a sinful nature.”[7]

Matthew Poole disagrees. For instance, in his commentary on Rom. 8:3, he states with regards to the word “flesh” here being used of men in general, and then also of Christ:
Flesh in this clause [concerning Christ] carries quite another sense than it did in the first verse; and in the former part of this verse, than it does in the following verse; there it is taken morally for the corrupt nature of man, here physically for the human nature of Christ.[8]
So there you have it in a nutshell. Matthew Poole pretty much speaks for the rest in his camp. “Oh, Christ really condemned the sin in our flesh alright in the former and latter clauses,” so they say, “but He didn’t actually become it in the clause that talks about Himself.” But they can’t have it both ways here. Either Christ condemned sin "in" our flesh, with our sin placed "in" His flesh—or not! If our sin was not in or upon Christ, then He couldn’t condemn it or end it. He might be able to be a guinea pig that bears the guilt or blame for it, but He couldn’t condemn it in Himself—or even in us for that matter! But our sin had to be in and upon Christ in order for Him to condemn it, kill it, and render it powerless in our own lives. And that is exactly what Romans 6:6 affirms to us, when it says Christ crucified our “old man.” How could Christ do so, unless He somehow and in some way became him (or us) in order to crucify him (or us)? You cannot crucify in your person, something that is not you in your person. No, Christ really became us as the “old man” in order to kill him and render him powerless in our lives, so that our body of sin might be rendered ineffective to go on sinning anymore. That is what Romans 6:6 clearly affirms. There is no other way to understand this. No one can “wiggle” out of what this verse, and even this entire chapter, is affirming to us. We died to sin within (and without) when Christ died to sin within and without! We were already dead in sins and trespasses (Eph. 2:1, 5), so how is it that we died with Christ, if it wasn't physically? We died with Christ spiritually to sin, clearly, when He also died spiritually to the sin of our old man created in Adam. And we rise spiritually as well to a new life because Christ was also "made alive in spirit," according to 1Pet. 3:18 and 1Tim. 3:16 as noted in the ASV translation. Our old man (or our old sinful disposition or nature, also referred to as the "natural" man) was crucified with Christ, in order that we would rise as a “new man” in Christ, or as a "spiritual" man. The old natural carnal man has passed away and a new creation (or new spiritual man) has been created in his place. Christ didn't crucify a realm, a regime, or an outward relationship to the world, the flesh, and the Devil (as Douglas Moo and a small handful of other Christians erroneously assert). Christ crucified A MAN! He crucified who we were as the old man "in" Adam. All of this has to do with who we are internally on an inward spiritual level.

What Is "The Sin" That Christ Condemned In The Flesh?

Now before moving on, it should first be noted here that by Christ condemning "the sin" in His flesh—and by “the sin” it is to be understood as “the sin” as expressed in John 1:29, and as understood by most commentators of this verse in John's gospel as a phrase referring to the collective mass of all sin (whether for a singular sin or for any or all sin) as also noted by John in 1Jhn. 3:5—that Christ was condemning the root cause of the sin of our old sinful human disposition or nature, which is the actual principle or power behind the sin that inherently produces sin on a continual basis in the first place. Again, Rom. 6:6 is basically saying the same thing: our old man (or “the flesh” also in this case, as noted in Gal. 5:24) is crucified, in order that “the body of the sin” (or the physical body in this particular case which is the vehicle for “the sin”), might be rendered powerless to continually keep on sinning anymore. To be sure, “the sin” as noted here, and everywhere else throughout Romans 5-8, in the reading of the literal Greek, is not—I repeat NOT—the sinful nature as many have erroneously postulated (for example, see Kenneth Wuest’s commentary on Romans 6). It is a phrase that is used by Paul to refer to any or all sin of the old nature, or even of the physical body, which are the vehicles or avenues for the sin. The phrase, or the term, “the sinful nature,” is actually delineated for us by Paul in Rom. 8:3 where he refers to it as the “sinful flesh” (or “flesh of sin”) in the middle of that verse, “in the flesh” in the latter part of that verse, “the flesh” in Gal. 5:24, being “fleshly” in Rom. 7:14, and also “the old man” or “natural man” in Rom. 6:6 and 1Cor. 2:14 respectively. These ideas can also include the physical body as well as conditioned by this principle or power of sin. But for the sake of our discussion here, we normally refer to the “old man” and “the flesh” as indicative of where this principle or power of the sin dwells, and of which Christ crucified. But this crucifixion by Christ also renders our bodies as no longer conditioned by this principle behind sin any longer. What Christ did on the cross, not only takes care of who we were internally, but externally as well. The two really do go hand-in-hand. As goes the one, so goes the other. They are mutually inclusive of each other, not exclusive. As Meyer worded it earlier: "it is the sinful corporeo-psychical human nature" that Christ crucified; the body as well as the soul—with the “body” still having to be dealt with, while the inward disposition to sin has in the past been dealt a death-blow, according to Rom. 6:6, with Paul using the aorist indicative for the crucifixion of our "old man," and the aorist subjunctive with regards to the "body." The former denoting a definitive once-and-for-all past-tense event, the latter denoting the possibility of it decisively happening based upon certain conditions being met by us with God's help, as Paul afterward denotes in the verses that follow when he speaks of reckoning ourselves as good as dead to sin in our bodies (v. 11ff).

Now when we are discussing both the physical body and the old sinful disposition as being the vehicles for sin, even the idea of being a “slave” is used interchangeably in Scripture of one who is either a slave to sin or a slave to God and to holiness. “The sin” (or the holiness), isn’t to be the guiding principle or the main focus of our thought here, it is on who we are already as a person—as either a BONDSLAVE who is bound to practice sin or bound to practice holiness. Case in point: In John 15:22, Christ says literally in the Greek concerning those in this world: "If I had not come and spoken to them, they would not have sin, but now they have no excuse for the sin of them" (or "their sin," as noted in all of the translations that I compared). Clearly, "the sin" here is not the sinful nature, but sin which is to be noted in its collective sense for any or all sin. And "the sin" noted here is the same genitive feminine singular noun as used many times over in all the verses in question in Romans 5-8. Again, in John 8:34, Jesus says: "everyone who practices sin is a slave of the sin," again using the same genitive feminine singular noun. And with "the sin" here being akin to any or all sin practiced in the earlier part of this verse. And, clearly, "the sin" is not being personified here as a person as many mistakenly claim, and thus denoting them as a slave, but this person is already a slave in the nature that keeps practicing the sin, just as someone who is a slave to another (and in this case, to the Devil) is inclined to do. Again, "the sin" isn't the person who is called a slave; the slave is the person practicing the sin. So perish the thought that "the sin" refers to the sinful nature. Let's put the last nail in that coffin to rest right now.

So, when Paul tells us literally in the Greek in Rom. 6:12-13 to “not let the sin reign in your mortal bodies,” or “to not go on presenting the members of your body to the sin as instruments of unrighteousness,” Paul is NOT referring to us no longer allowing the sinful nature to have its way with us, for that "old man" with his ways, or "the flesh," in Rom. 6:6 and Gal. 5:24, is crucified and dead! On the contrary, Paul is referring to us no longer allowing the sin of the physical body as the vehicle for sin to have its way with us (which no doubt is also understood by some to be personified here by the noun with the definite article in the phrase, “the sin”), and which actually takes us back to “the trespass” of Adam in Rom. 5:15 which is likewise personified here as the subject by also using the noun form of this word in the nominative neuter singular. And it is also "the sin" mentioned throughout this chapter, and, more particularly, in verses 12 and 21. Clearly, the words “the trespass” also personified here by using the definite article, do not have a reference to a sinful nature at all, as anyone with any sense can see, but to "the sin" of Adam in transgressing God’s command which was given to him. These verses above in Rom. 6:12-13 have been a tough nut to crack for some, but I believe the answer lies in the “key” that unlocks this mystery as delineated above. Like I said at the beginning of this article, a person will not even begin to see or perceive this if they still believe they are the person in Romans 7. All of this will remain a "mystery"—an enigma! And such a person will find themselves twisting words and Scriptures like these mentioned above in order to fit their own misconception about themselves. So, again, "the sin" here in Rom. 6:12-13, and elsewhere, is not the sinful nature at all. "The sin" (or "the trespass") mentioned of Adam in Romans 5 is what brought judgment upon Adam (and upon all of his posterity) that resulted in the sinful nature and physical death; in both a spiritual death and in a physical death by impartation and by imputation. By causing us to receive not only the penalty for Adam's sin, but also the power and inclination for his sin. Not only on behalf of us, but also actually in the place of us; not only upon our person, but in our person as well.

Now, R. C. H. Lenski, in tandem with Matthew Poole above adds: “Paul has just used the term ‘flesh’…in the sense of our corrupt nature; if he had continued in this strain and had written that God sent His Son ‘in the flesh’ [with the emphasis on "in"], the sense would be that Christ appeared in our sinful nature.”[9] But whether “in” or “of” the flesh, it makes no difference, as Meyer clearly denoted earlier of Christ condemning sin in the flesh, through the flesh. And one can find many examples in Scripture where being “in the flesh” or “of the flesh” in certain contexts denotes one having a sinful nature. We find this similar nuance in Romans 8 just a couple of verses later (which is lost in most translations), where in verses 5 and 6 Paul refers to the mind “of the flesh,” and in verse 9 he says we are not “in the flesh” but in the Spirit if the Spirit of God dwells in you; not to mention also Gal. 5:19; Eph. 2:3 and 1Pet. 4:2 as depicted accurately in the NASB. John says that everyone who confesses that Jesus Christ has come “IN the flesh” is from God (1Jhn. 4:2), so does this mean, according to Lenski’s analysis above, “that Christ appeared in our sinful nature”? Not here! How ridiculous is that! The problem for Lenski is that his own prejudices have caused his mind to be stuck on a certain position, blinding him to seeing any other notion. Only in a given context can we determine what the meaning of “flesh” is. And in the context of Romans 7-8, the meaning of “flesh” is clearly flesh with sin in it. And this is why Paul emphasizes flesh with “sin” in it. Not just ordinary human flesh, but human flesh with sin in it! I like how God’s Word Translation translates Rom. 8:3b: “But God sent his Son to have a human nature as sinners have and to pay for sin. That way God condemned sin in our corrupt nature.” This really says it all. And the New English Bible, except for its interpolation of the words "as a sacrifice," follows suit with: "By sending His own Son in a form like that of our own sinful nature, and as a sacrifice for sin, he has passed judgment against sin within that very nature." The Good New Translation likewise concurs: "He condemned sin in [the] human nature by sending his own Son, who came with a nature like our sinful nature, to do away with sin." Weymouth's translation also tells the story. In the Greek (as noted also by J.F.B., Alford, and Meyer above), it really says Christ took on human flesh with sin in it, in order to condemn or put an end to sinning in our flesh. As any careful student of the Bible will notice, the word “offering” is not in the original Greek text; it is an interpolation which is an attempt to absolve Christ of actually becoming sin in our stead, and just become an offering for sin. And more will be said on this as well later. But suffice it to say for now, many of these men just mentioned above do not see the word "offering" being intimated here one iota. In speaking for most of these men, Godet writes: "The context does not require the idea of sacrifice, because the matter in question is not guilt to be expiated, but solely the evil tendency to be uprooted."[10] Cranfield agrees: "It has often been understood here to mean 'as an offering for sin.' But the context does not seem to support the sacrificial interpretation. So it is better to take it in a general sense as indicating that which the mission of the Son had to do."[11] Charles Hodge, and many more in his camp (including his son Archibald), see it as only the "guilt" to be removed, and not the sin, and therefore see Christ as only an "offering" for sin in a judicial or forensic sense, and not dealing with the power of sin here at all in our lives. As reformed pastor James Montgomery Boice notes here: "The majority of Protestant commentators, as well as many in the early church, were so concerned to protect the doctrine of justification by faith apart from the merit of works that they rejected any thought of sanctification in this passage [in Rom. 8:3]. Charles Hodge is an example."[12] In short, Charles Hodge states that verses 3-4, in particular, "must be understood of justification, and not of sanctification."[13] And more will be said on this later as well with regards to Hodge and what he says concerning all of this. But suffice it to say for now, in Hodge’s commentary under Rom. 5:12, he notes how that Calvin “lived in a day when the imputation of Adam's sin was made, by the theologians of the Romish Church, so prominent as to leave inherent depravity almost entirely out of view. The whole tendency of the Reformers [including Calvin], therefore, was to go to the opposite extreme.”[14] It was “the opposite extreme” that we are condemned not only for Adam’s sin by imputation, but also condemned for our own inherent depravity created in us through Adam, and thus undercutting the doctrine of the imputation of Adam’s sin as the only reason for our condemnation. And, sadly, going this “opposite extreme” has been no less true with regards to Hodge in insisting that in Rom. 8:1-4 and 2Cor. 5:21 (and even in some other minor passages) that they all have to do with the doctrine of just justification, rather than that of our personal sanctification and our deliverance from the moral depravity and power behind sin.

Now some more examples can be cited where “in the flesh” does not necessarily denote a sinful nature. For example, in Rom. 2:28 Paul talks about circumcision “in the flesh.” Does this refer to the sinful nature? Not at all. In 2Cor. 10:3 Paul says we walk “in the flesh.” Does this mean that we have a sinful nature? Of course not! And what about 2Cor. 12:7 where Paul said he had a thorn “in the flesh”? Does this mean he had a thorn in his sinful nature? How absurd is that! So, you see, being “in” or “of” the flesh in many given contexts does not determine that one necessarily has a sinful nature or not. Like I said earlier, it is the context and subject matter that determines this for us. And, again, the context and subject matter in Romans 7-8 is all about those who have a sinful nature, and how Christ took on that nature in order to condemn it in His flesh in the crucifixion on the cross. Of course, at birth, Christ never “appeared” in our “sinful” flesh, He became that way on the cross for us in order to crucify it. This is the dilemma we are faced with: On the cross did Christ really become “like” us, warts and all? Or, did He become “like” us on a human level, but without all the warts and all? You are pretty much going to hear a lot of people say in their commentaries with regards to this verse in Rom. 8:3 that Christ became us, “but without all the warts and all”—or without the sin!

Paul definitively says here in Rom. 8:3 that Christ’s flesh was not just “flesh,” but flesh “of sin.” Remember the genitive of possession noted earlier? It should not go without notice here that this is the difference that Paul is emphasizing. It is not whether Christ was “in” or “of” the flesh—that is a moot point. Christ was in or of the flesh, in this particular case, with sin in it. Our sins were placed in and upon Christ’s human nature or flesh. This is what marks the characteristic difference between the most common usage of the word “flesh” in the Greek as referring to just the human body, as opposed to the more insidious idea of the flesh with sin deeply rooted in it, as denoted in: “sinful flesh.” If not, then words have no meaning. And doesn’t Paul essentially say the same thing in 2Cor. 5:21, when he says that Christ was “made sin” who knew no sin? John says Christ was “made flesh” (Jhn. 1:14, KJV) with no indication whatsoever of Him being made like sin, and rightly so. And Paul could very well have said the same thing in Rom. 8:3, but he didn’t. In 2Cor. 5:21, Paul now omits “flesh” altogether and says Christ was “made sin” because Paul wanted to differentiate between what is just “mortal flesh,” from what is mortal flesh with “sin” in it. Again, the word “offering” in this verse in Second Corinthians is an interpolation made in some translations and by many commentators that the original Greek does not support. Again, it is an attempt to absolve Christ of having our sin placed in and upon His person.

Albert Barnes in his commentary here on Rom. 8:3, in tandem with Poole and Lenski above, says that Christ “partook of flesh, or the nature of man, but without any of its sinful propensities or desires.”[15] But if “flesh” in the entire context here in Romans 7-8 is talking about the sinful human nature, then how can it be said that Christ “partook of flesh…the nature of man, but without any of its sinful propensities or desires,” if the nature of the unregenerate man here that Paul is talking about is sinful? What is meant by this statement of Albert Barnes? Again, according to Barnes, and many in league with him, Christ partook of man’s human nature but without the sin in it. But, again, if that were true, then Paul would have omitted “of sin” altogether and would have just said “in the likeness of flesh,” as he elsewhere does when referring to Christ’s human “body of the flesh” as in Col. 1:22, and our human “body of the flesh” as in Col. 2:11. In Rom. 6:6 Paul had just referred to “the body OF THE SIN” as denoting the human body (Gk. soma) as the vehicle for sin. So isn’t that in essence what Paul is saying of Christ here in Rom. 8:3 in Him becoming “flesh OF SIN”? Again, in Php. 2:7, Paul mentions Christ being made in the “likeness of men” without any indication of being made like sin, and rightly so. But here in Rom. 8:3, Paul says Christ is made like the flesh “of sin,” which is somewhat analogous to the phrase “the body of the sin” in Rom. 6:6, and which is more in agreement with the immediate context here in Romans 8 which denotes sinful men with natures prone to sin, and in which Christ evidently became likened to in order to condemn the sin in our fleshly human nature through His sin-laden human nature. The only difference between Rom. 6:6 and Rom. 8:3, is that in Rom.6:6 Paul is referring to the human body as the instrument or vehicle of the sin, while in Rom. 8:3 we are dealing with the “flesh” in its depreciatory ethical/moral sense of indwelling sin in the human nature. So, Christ had to become like “sinful flesh” in order for God to justly condemn sin in the human nature (or “the flesh” as a "corporeo-psychical" entity) in our stead.

I, along with Henry Alford, Meyer, John Murray, J.F.B., Godet, Cranfield, James Boice, Bengel and a host of others, take this to mean here in Rom. 8:3 that Paul is speaking in a practical and experiential way with regards to our sanctification, having nothing to do here whatsoever with our justification at all. Yet most, if not all of these men still see the believer as still dealing with the old nature or the principle of sin (or "indwelling sin," as they like to call it), but now only on a muted level with the new man now ruling the roost.

Click here for part two.


Footnotes:

[1] The MacArthur New Testament Commentary, Ephesians, (Chicago: Moody Press, 1986), pp. 178-179.
[2] See 2011 NIV, ESV, NASB, KJV, ASV, DRB, ERV, WBT, WEB, YLT.
[3] Accessed online at: biblehub.com.
[4] Ibid.
[5] Ibid.
[6] Ibid.
[7] Accessed from John Calvin’s commentary on Romans in public domain online at: www.studylight.org.
[8] Matthew Poole, Matthew Poole’s Commentary on the Whole Bible (Peabody: Hendriksen Pub., 2008), vol. 3, p. 502. Words in brackets and italicized bold words mine.
[9] R. C. H. Lenski, Interpretation of St. Paul’s Epistle to the Romans (Minn: Augsburg, 1936), p. 500.
[10] Commentary on Romans, (Grand Rapids: Kregel Pub., 1977), p. 299; italics his.
[11] The International Critical Commentary, The Epistle to the Romans (Edinburgh: T. and T. Clark, 1975), vol. 1, p. 382.
[12] Romans (Grand Rapids: Baker Pub., 1992), vol. 2, n. 1, p. 799.
[13] Romans (Edinburgh: Banner of Truth, 1989), p. 254.
[14] Ibid, p. 150.
[15] Barnes' Notes on the New Testament, Romans (Grand Rapids: Baker, reprint 1983), p. 172.

Christ Our Substitute and Identification (2 of 6)



The Meaning of "Likeness": Alike, or Not Alike?

Now, when Christ became a curse for us on the cross, He appeared in a form of existence which resembled the fleshly human nature affected by sin. As reformed theologian John Murray rightly observes here: “He himself was holy and undefiled—the word ‘likeness’ guards this truth. But he came in the same human nature. And this is the purpose of saying ‘sinful flesh.’”[1] Now the word “likeness” just means to assume or become something that you weren’t before. This is what John Murray means when he says, “the word ‘likeness’ guards this truth” with regards to Christ in “Himself” being holy and undefiled. He who knew no sin like sinful human beings, was made exactly like a sinful human being, even according to 2Cor. 5:21, which we also discuss a little later.

This Greek word for “likeness” in Rom. 8:3 is also used also in Rom. 1:23; 5:14; 6:5, and in Php. 2:7 (which was mentioned earlier in part one). For example, in Rom. 6:5 it says that “if we have been united with Him in the likeness of His death, certainly we shall also be in the likeness of His resurrection” (NASB). There is nothing to indicate to us here that we are not actually united with Christ spiritually in His death, or that we are not raised spiritually with Him, which is what all of this is talking about here. A physical death and resurrection is not even in the picture here at this moment and time. And even if a physical resurrection was being denoted here, we will all be physically resurrected some day exactly like Christ was raised physically. So, clearly, “likeness” means EXACTLY alike, not partially alike.

The Interpreter’s Bible keenly observes here on Rom. 8:3:
It should be pointed out that the Greek word ομοιωμα ["likeness"] has a somewhat different connotation from "likeness" in English. It does not mean—or at least may not mean—mere appearance, but rather the form of manifestation which a concrete thing assumes. Thus Goodspeed renders this, "our sinful human form"….Paul has a conception of the flesh (as hopelessly corrupted by sin) which makes him shrink from describing Jesus simply as [or "merely" as] "being in the flesh." But this is what he means in fact, [with] such terms as "likeness" and "fashion" (Phil. 2:7) notwithstanding…. [If] Jesus’ flesh was real flesh, but not "flesh of sin"…in that case how [else] could he have been thought of dealing with sin in the flesh?[2]
Their point is well taken. In other words, there would have been no other way to express the idea of flesh with sin in it, other than for Paul to add the words: “of sin.” On the cross, Christ’s flesh was no longer merely just called “flesh” which he assumed from Mary in His incarnation (cp. Rom. 1:4), but flesh “of sin,” like the “body of the sin” mentioned by Paul in Rom. 6:6. Who in their right mind would not understand “body of the sin” as denoting a body in which sin is manifested? Paul didn’t understand the word “body” here to mean “merely” a body, but a body in which sin is manifesting itself; and he expressed it as such by similarly stating it in the same way that he does in Rom. 8:3 with the words “of sin.” Do you see that? “Body of the sin” and “flesh of sin” denote something with sin attached to it. The former has to do with the fleshly physical body as the vehicle for the sin that Paul says was rendered powerless over our lives in the crucifixion of our old man; the latter has to do with a human nature with the capacity to sin, and of which Christ stopped dead in its tracks for us in His flesh, and as well as in us! In Rom. 6:6, the body of the sin has been rendered ineffective to continue in sinning, in the fact that Christ condemned (or crucified) the sin in His entire human nature in Rom. 8:3. Christ takes on the sin of us in His entire human nature (or flesh), in order that the sin might be annulled in our entire human nature (or flesh) as well. Our Substitute identified with our personal sin both within and without (as demonstrated in the laying on of hands by the high priest in the OT), that we might identify with Christ in His personal righteousness both within and without that was imparted to us via the new man created in us, thus making us "partakers of His holiness" (Heb. 12:10).

Now many commentators and bible expositors want to downplay the word “likeness” to mean “likeness of flesh,” conveniently overlooking “of sin” altogether to stop short of saying likeness “of sin” or of “sinful flesh,” because they want to protect Christ’s sinlessness. But this need not be a problem for us when we understand that Christ was “made sin” (or made like us) according to 2Cor. 5:21, on the cross, and not before the cross, in order to condemn and put to death the principle of sin within us along with the accompanying sins practiced by it, and to be an atoning sacrifice and propitiation that appeased the wrath of God for us by having our sin placed in and upon His person. As Arthur Pink also strongly denotes in no uncertain terms with regards to what happened to Christ in 2Cor. 5:21: "'He [God] made him [legally constituted Christ] to be sin for us,' not in mere semblance, but in awful reality..."[3]

The words in Rom. 8:3, “of flesh of sin,” according to Greek expositor A. T. Robertson, are “two genitives”[4] of possession (as noted earlier by Alford). With the first denoting that Christ is “of flesh,” and the second denoting that Christ is of flesh possessed “of sin.” And as Robertson also correctly observes here, this genitive lets us know that Christ’s flesh is “marked by sin.”[5] Clearly, this is the “likeness” or resemblance of our sinful flesh that Christ’s flesh assumed on the cross on our behalf. But for theological reasons Robertson stops short of saying that Christ’s flesh was sinful here: “the flesh of man is, but not the flesh of Christ.”[6] Robertson just got through telling us that the Greek substantiates for us that the genitive lets us know that Christ’s flesh is “marked by sin.” But his theology forces him to side-step or overlook these genitives of possession in the Greek in favor of his own doctrinal position and traditions of man. He thus refers his readers to his larger treatise on all of this, which states:
Sometimes it is quite important for doctrinal reasons to be careful to note whether the adjunct is attributive or predicate. Thus in Rom. 8:3,…if en teh sarki [“in the flesh,” at the end of the verse] is attributive with hamartian [the “sin” likewise mentioned at the end of the verse], there is a definite assertion of sin in the flesh of Jesus. But if the phrase [in the flesh] is predicate and to be construed with katekrine [condemned], no such statement is made. Here the grammarian is helpless to decide the point. The interpreter must step in and appeal to the context or other passages for light.[7]
So, either the word sin is attributed to the flesh in which the entire sinful human nature is being condemned here in Christ's flesh, or the word sin is not attributed with Christ's flesh here and condemned apart from being in Christ's flesh altogether. The “condemnation” is either predicated on just “sin” alone being condemned here, or “sin” is attributed as part and parcel with Christ's flesh as the sinful human nature which in its entirety is being condemned IN His flesh. I opt for the latter, because our sinful human nature cannot be condemned in us (let alone outside or apart from us) unless it is first condemned in Christ’s flesh, not objectively but subjectively. How can our sinful human nature (or our “old man” in Rom. 6:6, or “the flesh” in Gal. 5:24) be condemned in Christ’s flesh if there was no such nature (or old man) placed in or upon Him to condemn to begin with? And this is in fact what many believe. Boy, all one has to do is just read 2Cor. 5:21 with Lev. 16:21-22 in order to realize that our sins were really placed (transferred and imparted) on Christ’s person as the son of man.

Robertson appeals to the context and other passages in the Greek for help with his argument above, but with no real conviction one way or the other. For him, all is really guesswork from hereon out, based solely upon one’s own “doctrinal reasons.” This is why there is so much confusion with regards to all of this. Everyone is bringing to the table their own thoughts and ideas into the mix of things here, and either adding to or subtracting from God’s Word. If Robertson would have only stuck to the literal Greek, and believed it, he wouldn’t have been led astray to entertain any other notion. In fact, he himself says that it is quite possible that if sin is to be attributive to “the flesh,” and not just to the word “condemned,” that “there is a definite assertion of sin in the flesh of Jesus.”[8] And isn’t this what Christ is in fact condemning in Romans 7-8? The flesh with sin in it? So that we are no longer those “in” or “of” the flesh in Romans 8, but now “in” and “of” the Spirit? This is all about a freedom that is within us to keep and fulfill the Law mentioned in Romans 8:4, not to disobey the Law; about submitting to God’s Law, not rebelling against God’s Law (see also verses 6-9).

Now, may I ask, isn’t “sin” what is being attributed by all to the word “flesh” in the first part of Rom. 8:3? And isn’t it the sinful human nature that renders the law powerless to do what it could not do, which Paul says is to condemn our sinful human nature that wants to sin? And isn’t it our sinful human nature which is eventually condemned and put to death, as Romans 6 also delineates, and not just the sin that is separate and distinct from our human nature and which is expressed in our physical bodies? Isn’t it in fact the principle of sin or the sinful nature in our human nature called “the old man” that is being crucified and condemned here? Rom. 6:6 says it is: “our old man was crucified with Him in order that our body of the sin [or our physical fleshly body that is the instrument of the sin] might be rendered powerless, so that we should no longer be slaves to the sin…” (lit. trans.; words in brackets mine). In fact, verse 5 says that we were united in the “likeness” (same Greek word as in Rom. 8:3) of Christ's death that He died, because He was evidently united in the likeness of our sinful flesh or nature in which He is said to have crucified in verse 6. He had to be made “like” us in order to crucify us in His person, and we had be become “like” Him in order to be spiritually raised with Him. Christ brought death to our old natural man both physically and spiritually, so that we would be raised a new spiritual man both physically and spiritually.

The Expositor’s Greek NT likewise adds concerning Rom. 8:3:
He [Paul] wishes to indicate not that Christ was not really man, or that His flesh was not really what in us is sarke hamartias [flesh of sin], but what for ordinary men is their natural condition is for this Person [Christ] only an assumed condition…. But the emphasis in omoiwma [likeness] is on Christ’s likeness to us, not His unlikeness; “flesh of sin” is one idea to the Apostle, and what he means by it is that God sent His Son in that nature which in us is identified with sin….It does not prejudice Christ’s [own] sinlessness, which is a fixed point with the Apostle…; and if anyone says that it involves a contradiction to maintain that Christ was sinless, and that He came in a nature which in us is identified with sin, it may be pointed out that this identification does not belong to the essence of our nature, but to its corruption, and that the uniform teaching of the N.T. is that Christ is one with us—short of sin [in His own person]. The likeness and the limitation of it (though the former is the point here urged) are equally essential in the Redeemer.[9]
Greek expositor Kenneth Wuest counters Robertson’s remarks above in the words of Denney:
The words "in the flesh" are to be construed with "condemned": the flesh—that in which sin had reigned—was also that in which condemnation of sin was executed. But Paul does not mean that by His sinless life in our human nature, Christ had broken the power of sin…; he means that in the death of His own Son, who had come in our [sin-stained] nature to make atonement for sin, God had pronounced the doom of sin, and brought its claims and authority over man to an end.[10]
Boy, I like that!

Charles Cranfield, in his commentary on Romans, similarly agrees that this condemnation wasn’t just of the sin, but that it took place “in Christ’s flesh, [in] Christ’s [entire] human nature[11]; and, “if we recognize that Paul believed it was fallen human nature which the Son of God assumed, we shall probably be inclined to see here also a reference to the unintermittent warfare of His whole earthly life by which He forced our rebellious nature to render a perfect obedience to God.”[12] In his footnote, Cranfield again succinctly remarks:
Those who believe that it was fallen human nature which was assumed have even more cause than had the authors of the Heidelberg Catechism to see the whole of Christ’s life on earth as having redemptive significance; for, on this view, Christ’s life before His actual ministry and death [on the cross] was not just a standing where unfallen Adam had stood without yielding to the temptation to which Adam succumbed, but a matter of starting from where we start, subjected to all the evil pressures which we inherit, and using the altogether unpromising and unsuitable material of our corrupt nature to work out a perfect, sinless obedience.[13]
Former reformed OPC pastor, theologian and commentator John Murray, who was the successor to Gresham Machen, also joins ranks with the likes of Wuest and Cranfield saying:
It is not sufficient to think merely of the condemnation of sin which the unblemished life in Jesus offered….[With regards to] “in the flesh”—we cannot escape the eloquent contrasts which the use here of the word “flesh” throws into relief. The law “was weak through the fleshand here “flesh” means sinful human nature. God sent his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and, again flesh, because it is the flesh of sin, is used in the depreciatory sense….It is not that sin in the flesh was condemned but that sin was condemned through the flesh. In that same nature which in all others was sinful, in that very nature which in all others was dominated and directed by sin, in that nature assumed by the Son of God but [in Himself] free from sin, God condemned sin and overthrew its power. Jesus not only blotted out sins guilt and brought us nigh to God. He also vanquished sin as power and set us free from its enslaving dominion. And this could not have been done except in the “flesh.”[14]
Condemnation: To Our Justification Or To Our Sanctification?

Now it must not go without saying here, how that many think that when Paul is talking about “condemnation” in Rom. 8:1-3, that he is only talking about our justification here. But nothing could be further from the truth. Paul is saying that there is now no longer any condemnation from the Law with regards to sin to bear upon the Jew (or anyone) who is now in Christ, because in Christ what the law was powerless to do in attempting to condemn (or destroy) the sin in them (or us), Christ did in fact do. Christ stopped the continuance of sin “in” all of us in order that we might fulfill the righteous requirements of the law, not disobey them! Paul isn’t talking about Christ forensically fulfilling the righteous requirements of the law for us (even though He did) in order to justify us; that is not the issue here. Paul is talking about the sinful human nature that incited us to sin being destroyed or condemned (even as a house is condemned to destruction) in Christ’s person and work on the cross, so that we can now personally keep the good, holy and just requirements of the law, no longer falling under its condemning effects. Not to mention the fact that the Law is now no longer our husband that tells us what to do, as described for us in Rom. 7:1-6. How can the Law any longer condemn us for our non-compliance, if we are no longer subjugated to it anymore as our husband? It can't! And it doesn't. But, nevertheless, we are not without law to God, but under law to Christ.

In Romans 7, we see the Law demanding and condemning but unable to free us from such condemnation; while in Romans 8, we are now free to fulfill the righteousness requirements of the Law (v. 4) through the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus (v. 2), by the fact that the ability to continue in sin has been crucified in us in Christ (v. 3; cp. also w/Gal.5:24 and Rom. 6:6). If this isn't sanctification, then I don't know what is! Far be this from just speaking about our justification. And in verse 8 Paul says that the one still in the flesh with the mind of the flesh has no ability to keep the law, whereas just the opposite is now the case for us in verses 9-11. Again, the context here is all about our sanctification, not our justification. The word for "righteousness" here in Rom. 8:3, again in the words of Greek expositor Henry Alford, "is not precisely the word so often used in this Epistle to denote 'the righteousness which justifies' (Rom. 1:17; 3:21; 4:5, 6; 5:17, 18, 21), but another form of the same word, intended to express the enactment of the law, meaning here, we believe, the practical obedience which the law calls for."[15] The fulfilling of the law here in verse 3 is the antithesis to no ability to keep the law in verse 7. And so this surely, "by no means conveys the idea of a merely outward [judicial or forensic] action, but includes also the inner morality accordant with the law."[16]

Jamieson, Fausset and Brown couldn't agree more. And they note here on Rom. 8:1 in their commentary how that this is, “a difficult and much controverted verse. But it is clearly, we think, the law’s inability to free us from the dominion of sin [cp. Heb. 7:19] that the apostle has in view; as has partly appeared already…, and will more fully appear presently. The law could irritate our sinful nature into more virulent action, as we have seen in Ro 7:5, but it could not secure its own fulfillment. How that is accomplished comes now to be shown.”[17]

Everett Harrison goes on to even further claim in The Expositor’s Bible Commentary, how that,
The construction of vv. 2-4 carries us beyond the thought of freedom from condemnation in the sense of guilt. What is developed is the application of the redeeming work of Christ by the Spirit to the believer’s life in such a way that the dominion of sin is broken and the reign of godliness assured. The noun “condemnation” has its counterpart in the verb “condemned” (v. 3), which is followed immediately, not by a statement about the standing of the believer, but by one concerning his manner of life (v. 4).[18]
The “standing” of the believer is treated much later in this chapter once again in passing in verses 33-34, beginning in verse 28, but that is not the subject here in verses 1-27 (or in chapters 6 and 7). What is said of “the law of sin and death” in Rom. 8:2, has just been immediately treated previously in Rom. 7:23 (and also in v. 25) in Paul’s members to which he said he was a “prisoner” and a “slave” to prior to being saved, showing us that Paul still has the same subject matter in mind, and what also gives occasion for his inferential words, “therefore now,” in Rom. 8:1. The “law of sin and death” in Rom. 8:2 is the inward principle of sin in juxtaposition to “the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus” (also in v. 2). These nouns back-to-back in both of these phrases are what is known in Greek grammar as subjective genitives, ruling out entirely the idea of the Mosaic Law being the Law of sin and death, though that idea is not without biblical precedent elsewhere. As such, verse 2 starts out by literally reading: the law OF THE SPIRIT, not the Spirit OF THE LAW, as anyone with no knowledge of the Greek can readily see. Clearly, it is the principle and regulating power of the Spirit. And the same goes for the law of, literally, "the sin and the death." Here as well it is not: the sin OF THE LAW or the death OF THE LAW, but the law OF THE SIN or the law OF THE DEATH. The New Living Translation helps us here, when it likewise denotes the phrase "the law of the Spirit" as: "the Spirit's law." And in Rom. 7:25, the Darby Bible Translation, the World English Bible, and The New Heart English Bible also help us as well, by saying, "sin's law," which is the same subjective genitive in the Greek. And we see this same subjective genitive being used in Rom. 3:27, where it likewise speaks of "law OF FAITH," verses "faith OF LAW." So what we are talking about here in all of these instances is the regulating principle or power of the Spirit, of the sin, of the death, and of faith. This "law" is the the product or the effect of these subject genitives, not the means of them, as the Mosaic Law would be if this "law" is referring to it.

With regards to this subjective genitive, William Mounce notes in his Basics of Biblical Greek how that it occurs with a head noun (in this case, "the law") that expresses a verbal idea. And the verbal idea of this head noun is seen above in the active principle or power which is the product of these subjects noted above respectively. As Mounce also notes here: "You can use the helping word 'produced' to help identify this usage," and he mentions Rom. 8:35 as an example, which says: "Who will separate us from the love of Christ?" Here Mounce notes that it is: "The love produced by Christ" (ibid, p. 52). No wonder that many commentators are referring to the verses in chapter 7:21, 23 and 25 as linking us to what Paul is actually talking about in Rom. 8:2. The truth is in the details. Meyer, in his in-depth analysis and commentary at biblehub.com, caught on to this. And I hope that many will now be able to do so as well. Thus, again, the New Living Translation comes to the rescue by translating Rom. 8:2 as: "And because you belong to him, the power of the life-giving Spirit has freed you from the power of sin that leads to death." This truly tells the story. And which, by the way, proves beyond all doubt that we are NOT talking about our justification here, but our inward sanctification and once-and-for-all freedom from the power of sin and death as expressed also in Rom. 6:6.

As such, God's law or regulative principle and power behind the Spirit of life, “has freed you” (or "me," depending on what Greek texts one uses) from the regulative and enslaving power of that corrupt principle and law behind “the sin and the death” that use to be in all of us in Rom. 7:21, 23 and 25, until the new life in Christ took possession of us in our new inner man who has been created after God's very own image and likeness, according to Eph. 4:24. As Jamieson, Fausset and Brown succinctly note here: “the ‘strong man armed’ is overpowered by the ‘Stronger than he:’ the weaker principle is dethroned and expelled by the more powerful; the principle of spiritual life prevails against and brings into captivity the principle of spiritual death.”[19] Again, Harrison continues here: “The powerlessness of the law because of the weakness of the sinful nature to which it [the law] commands are addressed is an obvious reminder of the major thrust of chapter 7. The law makes demands, and it condemns when those demands are not met, but it cannot overcome sin. This inability of the law required the personal action of God in Christ.”[20]

With that said, all of this is no mere forensic or legal act; it is a union of life with Christ that actually frees us from the condemning effects of the law and of the principle and power of sin that use to be within us. And as one can plainly see from the immediate and preceding context, Christ is not condemning the principle of sin in our flesh to the pardon of it for our justification, but for the infliction of judicial vengeance upon it in order to condemn it so that it loosens its power over our lives; to release its iron grip upon us and to drive it from our inner human nature. With the commanding power of sin taken away, the condemning power of it is taken away as well. Christ, in essence, made the power behind sin to forfeit its dominion over us, and to flee from us with its tail wagging between its legs.

Again, John Murray similarly concludes under Rom. 8:1:
If the apostle is thinking merely of freedom from the guilt of sin and from the condemnation which guilt entails, then we should have to find the basis of the inference in that part of the epistle which deals particularly with that subject (3:21-5:21). But if there is included in freedom from condemnation not only deliverance from the guilt of sin but also from its power, then the “therefore” could be related quite properly to what immediately precedes (6:1-7:25) as well as to the more remote context. It is this latter alternative which the evidence would appear to demand. The word “condemnation” here can scarcely be interpreted apart from the immediately succeeding context in which it appears and so we must look for the specific complexion given to the word by this context to which it is so closely related. In this context, as will be shown later, the apostle is not dealing with justification and the expiatory aspect of Christ’s work but with the sanctification and with what God has done in Christ to deliver us from the power of sin. Hence what is thrust into the foreground in the terms “no condemnation” is not only freedom from the guilt of sin but also freedom from the power of sin….The thought moves in the realm of internal operation [in us] and not in that of objective [or forensic] accomplishment [in Christ]….While it is true that the work of Christ was expiatory and in that respect involved for Him the vicarious endurance of the condemnation due to sin, yet that expiatory accomplishment is not defined in terms of the condemnation of sin….The word “condemn” is used in the New Testament in the sense of consigning to destruction as well as of pronouncing the sentence of condemnation (cf. I Cor. 11:32; II Pet. 2:6).[21]
Murray cites 1Cor. 11:32 and 2Pet. 2:6 as examples of this kind of condemnation that brings destruction with it; and a few more examples could be cited. But just one more will suffice: In Mat. 20:18 Jesus talks about the Pharisees and how “they will condemn Him to death.” Here the condemnation results in Christ’s death. It is not just a forensic sentence pronounced that is in view here, but a sentence which results in Christ’s actual death, and, unbeknownst to them, even a death to the power of sin in us. As Godet also correctly notes of the usage of this word "condemnation" in this particular instance: "To condemn, is to declare evil, and to devote to destruction; and we see no occasion to depart from this simple and usual meaning.... The condemnation of sin in Christ's life is the means appointed by God to effect its destruction in ours."[22] Again, "For it was in the very fortress where sin had established its seat, that it behooved to be attacked and conquered."[23] And again, "This was the necessary condition of the destruction of the sinful tendency in mankind, in order to the restoration of holiness."[24] And finally, "There is therefore only one way of preventing sin from causing us to perish, that is, that it perish itself. Grace does not save by patronizing sin, but by destroying it."[25] When Paul says that Christ condemned the sin in the flesh—and “the sin” as we came to understand it as a collective term for the mass of humanity's sin, whether for one sin or for any or all sin used in its noun form and not in its verb form—Paul is talking about a judgment passed upon sin in our flesh wherein our nature prone to sin is actually crucified and put to death (and even circumcised) in us, so that we can now live the opposite of how we use to live in the previous condition described for us in Romans 7 of a sinner who keeps on sinning. This is what the “therefore” in Rom. 8:1 is there for. What the Law was powerless to do "in" the unsaved individual in Rom. 7:5, 7 and thereon, Christ has now done "in" us in Rom. 8:2-4 (for alternate viewpoint, see footnote).[26] In Rom. 8:7, the mind “of the flesh” (of the one with the sinful human nature) is “hostile to God. It does not submit to God’s law, nor can it do so.” This is akin to Rom. 7:18, where the “fleshly” man sold under sin (v. 14) according to the ESV translation has: “not the ability to carry it out” (i.e., the good that the good Law would have him to do). The Holman Christian Standard Bible renders verse 18: “but there is no ability to do it.” The Aramaic Bible in Plain English says: “I am unable to perform it.” Weymouth's translates this as: “the power to carry it out is not.” And the Greek verb tense in the present active indicative bears this truth out. We are not just talking about an occasional lapse into sin here, but a lifestyle where sin is the dominating feature in this person’s life, as Jesus starkly demonstrates to us in John 8:34 in the ESV translation. As these "present" tense verbs denote in Romans, this person is a practicing sinner (see NASB), not just a believer who might occasionally lapse into sin, and Paul emphasizes this in verses 15 and 19 as well by using the Greek verb "prasso" that is translated "practice" in the NASB (compare also with its Greek cognate, "prossantes," used in Gal. 5:21).

Murray goes on to say with regards to the “condemnation” here not being used just in the sense of absolving us from guilt:
“Corroboration of this view of the expression ‘condemned sin in the flesh’ is derived from the expression ‘is justified from sin’ in 6:7.…In that context the apostle is undoubtedly dealing with deliverance from the power of sin. ‘We died to sin’ (6:2) is the thesis unfolded in that chapter, and the forensic term ‘justify’ is used with reference to the judgment executed upon the power of sin in the death of Christ. The result is that all who have died with Christ are the beneficiaries of this judgment executed and are therefore quit of sin’s dominion. This is the force of the expression ‘justified from sin.’ In like manner the forensic term ‘condemn’ can be used in this instance to express the judicial judgment executed upon the power of sin in the flesh of Christ.”[27]
Either being in or of the flesh here in this overall context of chapters 7 and 8, is being “in the flesh” apart from the idea of any sin in it at all, or being “in the flesh” is used here in its ethical/moral sense of one having a sinful human nature which is what in totality is being condemned here in Christ. Again, Robertson opted for the idea presented above of just the sin being condemned; whereas I and those noted above opt for the idea of the sin principle being condemned based upon the overall context and how “in” or “of the flesh” is being used here in its ethical/moral sense. Now we can really see here, as Robertson said, that it is “for doctrinal reasons…whether the adjunct is attributive or predicate”; whether “likeness” really means “likeness,” and whether or not “sin in the flesh” is referring to the sin in the flesh, or just sin apart from the flesh; and, whether Christ killed “the flesh of sin” or “sinful flesh” (aka, our old man or the sinful human nature), or not. But if “likeness” really means “likeness,” and being “in the flesh” is attributed to flesh with “sin” engraved in it, then, in the words of Robertson again, “there is a definite assertion of sin in the flesh of Jesus.”[28] And if Rom. 6:6 says that Christ has indeed killed our old man (which it does), and not just our outward associations to a realm or regime, as some like Douglas Moo mentioned earlier claim in his commentary on Romans, then Christ actually became us that He might kill us, in order that we would become a new man (a holy man) in Him. We shouldn’t water down the significance and meaning of this transaction as a bare crucifixion, empty and void of anything done in us; or even the significance and meaning of what “likeness” is truly conveying to us here. And regardless of being uncomfortable with this idea, the Bible clearly states that our sins were actually (and not just forensically) imparted and imputed to Christ; not just objectively by imputation on behalf of our sins, but subjectively as well through impartation in and upon His entire human nature of body, soul and spirit; in order that Christ could actually redeem us in our body, soul, and spirit. This is the doctrine of impartation and imputation, beloved. It is being delivered not only from the penalty of sin, but also from the power of sin, and also referred to as our justification and our sanctification. We see this imputation and impartation with our first man Adam unto us; with our sin being imparted and imputed unto Christ; and, with Christ imputing and imparting unto us as our Second Adam—reversing all that the first man Adam had done to all of us. On the cross Christ took our nature, not as Adam received it initially before the fall from his Creator’s hand (although Christ did that too), but as it is in us—encompassed within and without with all of our infirmities—and with nothing to distinguish Christ as a man from any other sinful man, except for the fact that Christ in His own person knew in fact that He was personally without sin.

Click here for part three.


Footnotes: 6-23

[1] John Murray, The Epistle to the Romans (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1965), p. 280.
[2] The Interpreter’s Bible (Nashville: Abingdon, 1954), vol. 9, pp. 507, 508.
[3] The Satisfaction of Christ, p. 52; words in brackets his.
[4] A. T. Robertson, Word Pictures in the NT (Grand Rapids: Baker, 1931), vol. 4, p. 372.
[5] Ibid.
[6] Ibid.
[7] A. T. Robertson, A Grammar of the Greek NT in the Light of Historical Research (Nashville: Broadman Press, 1934), p. 784.
[8] Ibid.
[9] James Denney, The Expositor’s Greek NT on Romans (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, reprint 1990), p. 645.
[10] Kenneth Wuest, Word Studies in the Greek NT, Romans (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1955), vol. 1, pp. 128-129. Words in brackets mine (Clearly, Wuest is differentiating between the sinless nature of Christ and our sin-stained nature).
[11] C. E. B. Cranfield, A Critical and Exegetical Commentary on the Epistle to the Romans, Vol. 1 (Edinburg: T. and T. Clark, 1975), p. 382. Words in brackets mine.
[12] Ibid., p. 383.
[13] Ibid., p. 383, footnote #2. Words in brackets mine.
[14] John Murray, The Epistle to the Romans (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1959), pp. 281, 282.
[15] Greek Testament Critical Exegetical Commentary, accessed online at: biblehub.com.
[16] Meyer's NT Commentary, accessed online at: biblehub.com.
[17] Jamieson, Fausset and Brown commentary accessed online at: www.biblehub.com. Words in bold and italics for emphasis mine; words in brackets mine.
[18] Everett F. Harrison, The Expositor’s Bible Commentary, Romans (Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 1970), vol. 10, p. 86. Bold italics for emphasis mine.
[19] Jamieson, Fausset and Brown commentary accessed online at: www.biblehub.com. Words in bold and italics mine; words in brackets mine.
[20] Everett F. Harrison, The Expositor’s Bible Commentary, Romans (Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 1970), pp. 86-87.
[21] John Murray, The Epistle to the Romans (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1959), pp. 274-275, 277, 278. Words in brackets and in bold italics mine. The one word just italicized is his.
[22] Commentary on Romans (Grand Rapids: Kregel Pub., 1977), p. 299.
[23] Ibid, p. 300.
[24] Ibid, p. 298.
[25] Ibid, p. 296.
[26] Charles Hodge, in speaking for many (but not all) reformed brethren, disagrees. He says “therefore” refers not to what has just been previously stated, but to all that Paul has talked about previously (actually before chapter 6) with regards to our justification, and not with regards to our sanctification at all.

In discussing the righteousness of the law that might be fulfilled in us in verse 4, Hodge says that the meaning of this passage,
...is determined by the view taken of ver. 3. If that verse means, that God, by sending his Son, destroyed sin in us [which Hodge and many others do not believe], then of course this verse must mean, ‘He destroyed sin [in us], in order that we should fulfill the law;’ i.e., that we should be holy. But if ver. 3 is understood of the sacrificial death of Christ, and of the condemnation of sin in Him [and not in us] as the substitute of sinners, then this verse must be understood of justification, and not sanctification.”(a)
Earlier, under verse 1, Hodge had just written: “The decision of the question as to the connection [of the “therefore”] depends on the view taken of the apostle’s argument. If he argues that believers are not liable to condemnation, because with the mind they serve the law of God, then the connection is with what immediately precedes [in chap. 7]. But if the argument is, that those in Christ are not exposed to condemnation, notwithstanding their imperfect sanctification [in chap. 7], because Christ has died as a sacrifice for their sins, then the connection is with the main argument of the epistle.”(b) And then Hodge goes on to state what this “main argument” is: “Since men, being sinners, cannot be justified by works [in chaps. 2-4]; since by obedience of one man, Jesus Christ, the many are made righteous [in chap. 5]; and since through him, and not through the law, deliverance from the subjective power of sin is effected [in chap. 6], therefore it follows that there is no condemnation to those who are in him.”(c) Did you notice what Hodge has just done here? He has subtly interjected that “through him [Christ], and not through the law, deliverance from the subjective power of sin is effected,” and so it follows in all that Hodge has just stated that we have “no condemnation” in Christ. On the surface this all sounds fine and dandy. But Hodge cannot have it both ways here. Either “no condemnation” here, strictly speaking according to Hodge, is referring only to our justification; or it is actually a “deliverance from the subjective power of sin,” not through the law, but through Christ—which is what I and others have been saying all along here. How can Hodge include here that “no condemnation” intimates a “deliverance from the power of sin,” when he just got through stating earlier to us that Paul is treating "no condemnation" here only as it relates to our justification here in chapter 8:1-4, and not to our sanctification at all?

He continues with this same nonsense and ambiguity of what “no condemnation” really means here in these verses by again affirming: “And this again is not to be understood as descriptive of their present state merely, but of their permanent position.”(d) Again, Hodge is speaking out of both sides of his mouth here. Like I said, he can’t have it both ways here. Either “no condemnation” here is with respect to our justification, or with respect to our sanctification, but not to both! He vehemently and tenaciously argues against those who say that Paul is not talking about our justification here, but only about our sanctification. So why even bother to now conveniently include this idea about our sanctification as well? I think I can tell you why. It is because he wants to appease to the masses and not his conscience. Clearly, Hodge’s conscience is telling him that “no condemnation” at least (or “merely”) ever-so-slightly includes this idea, leaving the door open just a little bit for the idea that "deliverance from the subjective power of sin is effected," according to Romans 6. But not here in Rom. 8:1-4. Perish the thought that Christ crucified the sin in us, let alone in His own person, so they affirm. As Charles Hodge's son, Archibald Hodge notes with regards to Christ subjectively receiving our sins in His entire person of spirit, soul and body (or spirit/soul and body if you are a dichotomist):
It is claimed that these expressions [in Isaiah 53:6, 12; 2Cor. 5:21; Gal. 3:13; Heb. 9:28 and 1Pet. 2:24] cannot possibly be interpreted literally; that it cannot be true that Christ in any literal sense was transformed into sin; that the all-perfect Son of God could not have been in any natural sense of the word a sinner. Those who reject the orthodox doctrine of satisfaction hence illogically conclude that since these terms are not to be interpreted literally, they have no definite and certainly ascertainable meaning at all, but may be accommodated to any view of the atonement which we have reason on other grounds to prefer. In opposition to this, we maintain that the usage of Scripture with respect to the phrases "sin," "to bear sin," or "iniquity," "to impute" or "to lay upon" one "sin" or "iniquity," is uniform, and that their sense is both definite and certainly ascertainable; and that the meaning of the passages above quoted, when interpreted in the light of this usage, is unmistakably clear and consistent only with the doctrine that our sins were, in strict rigour of justice, laid upon and punished in the person of Christ. (e)
Just earlier, A. A. Hodge had said that our sins "were charged to his [or Christ's] account, and made his in such a sense that they were the legal [and not actual] cause of his suffering the penalty to them."(f) And just when you thought (as I did at first) that Hodge might be stating in his first few sentences above, what I am stating in this article, he doesn't. He is arguing for the idea that Christ did not "literally" take our sin in His human nature, but only upon His human nature; not expiating our sin placed in Him, but only expiating the guilt of our sins place upon Him; and sins not actually placed upon Him, mind you, but only hypothetically placed upon Him at that. “Because," as Hodge states, "personal moral qualities, and the pollution inherent in sinful ones, are inalienable and cannot be transferred by imputation.... Because, as [John] Owen pointed out long ago, to be 'alienoe culpoe reus' [that is, penally responsible for another's sin, as Hodge paraphrased this Latin phrase just earlier] makes no man a sinner, subjectively considered, unless he unwisely or irregularly undertake the responsibility.”(g)

First of all, “impartation” is not to be confused with "imputation," which is the “reckoning” or “placing into one’s account” usually (but not always) in an objective manner, as with regards to us being justified for nothing of note in us (which is what those, like Hodge, have in mind here with regards to Christ being imputed with just the "guilt" of our sins). So we are not talking here about the Greek word, logizomai, for “reckon,” that is used primarily in the NT of placing into one’s account for no work we have done. We are talking about internal impartation through Christ's union with us as the old man; not an external reckoning which, as the case may be here with Christ, is a result of this internal impartation of sin in and upon Christ's human nature, which Owen considers "unwise" and "irregular" for someone to do. But, ahh, it is the wisdom of God unto our sanctification. Foolishness to some, but the power of God to us-ward who believe. As Meyer has correctly deduced in his commentary of Gal. 3:13: "that is just the foolishness of the cross, which is wiser than men."(h) And Meyer believed, as noted earlier, that Christ was actually made sin in His person with our sin. Again, we are talking about Christ's union with us and our union with Him as our representative in His death, burial, and resurrection—and a spiritual death to sin and a spiritual resurrection to walk in newness of life at that—in accordance with Rom. 6:4-6. Here Paul says we died with Christ. We didn't die a physical death, but a spiritual one. We were already dead in sins and trespasses (Eph. 2:1, 4), so how is it that we died with Christ, if it wasn't physical? We died with Christ spiritually to "the sin" of the old man, and we rise to life spiritually in Christ because Christ likewise was "made alive in spirit" (see also 1Pet. 3:18 and 1Tim. 3:16 in ASV). And, of course, this is all followed with a physical resurrection someday as well. But the point in Romans 6 is that we spiritually died with Christ, in order be made spiritually alive with Him as well. Christ identified with us, and with our sin, that we might identify with Him and His righteousness, both positionally and practically. What occurred with Christ was through no fault of his own, and what has occurred to us is through no righteousness of our own. But this does not disclude the idea in all of this that Christ was actually made sin with our sin, and we are actually made righteous with Christ's righteousness. With regards to Christ, He was condemned with our sin placed in and upon His person; whereas, in our case, we are justified for no righteousness as of yet in our person. Both of us are "reckoned" or "imputed" either as "guilty," or "righteous," but with Christ He is "imputed" for the "guilt" of our sins actually place upon Him, while we are "imputed" as "righteous" for no righteousness within us as of yet at that time.

With that said, it must also be note here (and then later again in part three) that the word used for "imputation" in the Hebrew OT (and in the Greek Septuagint translation of the OT), that it is used in one particular case, in Lev. 17:4, of a person's sin being imputed (or reckoned) to them as the reason for God judging them, with the Septuagint using a form of the Greek word logizamai that is commonly used in the NT for imputation in a forensic manner of justifying a person (or even implied for condemning them) for no righteousness or sin of their own. So it is clear here that one cannot just pigeonhole this word to mean that imputation is used in a manner of reckoning men as sinners, or of justifying them, based solely upon nothing in them. This verse above in Leviticus says that sometimes they are. And even Psm. 32:2 with Rom. 4:8 (along with 2Cor. 5:19), mentions how that God has not reckoned or imputed our own sins to us, by justifying us regardless of our own sin, implying that we can be imputed for our own sin. In juxtaposition to all of this, the I.S.B.E also notes how this idea of us being imputed or reckoned "guilty" in a forensic manner for our own sins is implied or inferred in Lev. 5:12; 7:18; 19:8 and 22:9.

And as I also note in part three, John Murray makes note of these differing uses of "imputation" above in his book, The Imputation of Adam's Sin. And while Murray notes this fact, he also says that for the sake of our discussion here that it is best to stick with this word "imputation," as it is also used throughout Scripture in the sense of reckoning something to someone through no work of their own (and Archibald Hodge, while not oblivious to this former usage of imputation above, gives us a couple examples of this latter usage as well in: Gen. 31:15; Lev. 16:22; Isa. 53:11; Lam. 5:7; Num. 18:27, 30; 33:22). So, when we are speaking of "imputation" in this particular article with regards to Adam's "guilt" for his sin being imputed to us or, in God justifying us, we are referring to reckoning something to someone's account, regardless of their own works or endeavors. And when we are talking about our moral corruption as an old man in Adam, or our moral incorruption as a new man in Christ, we are talking about impartation (or, as some of the Protestant reformers liked to refer to it as: a "representative union" of being either in Adam or in Christ). In our particular case, the impartation of our moral corruption via Adam's transgression is the means of us becoming the old man in Adam and thus our union with him in his sin reckons or imputes to us God's condemnation. In like manner, the impartation of our moral incorruption via Christ's obedience is the means of us becoming a new man in Christ and thus our union with Him in His righteousness through faith reckons or imputes to us God's justification to life. In the case of both Adam and Christ (our Second Adam), Adam was reckoned or imputed as a sinner based upon his transgression which condemned him to death; while Christ was also reckoned or imputed as a sinner with our sins in our stead and which likewise condemned Him to death. The latter, of Christ being reckoned among sinners, condemned Him to death in His human spirit and body; while the former, of Christ's obedience being perfectly righteous in and of Himself, brought justification to life in His human spirit and body as well. His later obedience of suffering under the weight of our sin crucified our old man, while His previous obedience as our sinless Substitute via His resurrection created us as the new man.

Secondly, to say as Hodge that “personal moral qualities” (or attributes) cannot be transferred by impartation (and not by "imputation," mind you, as he words it), is clearly a case for mistaken identity. Again, Hodge is confusing the two to the extreme of defending the doctrine of imputation (as he narrowly understands it) and Christ's own personal sinlessness, at the expense of our personal sanctification in Christ that He wrought for us on the cross. Just read Leviticus 16, where the laying on of hands implies an actual impartation upon Christ of some kind, and not just a reckoning to His account for no sins placed upon Him, as Hodge also understands this chapter in Leviticus. Clearly, no doubt, Hodge is confusing “reckoning to someone’s account” (again, as he narrowly understands it) with “imparting” something to someone. And just as Christ has made us to become “partakers of His divine nature” (2Pet. 1:4), or, “partakers of His holiness” (Heb. 12:10), Christ too, in turn, has been made to become a partaker of our sin. Christ being “made” sin, and us becoming righteousness in 2Cor. 5:21 (and in many other verses), in all honesty, denotes this latter idea of impartation and identification with us through a creative act of God which this Greek word for "made" (poieo) implies (which is discussed in more detail in part three), and not the former of “reckoning to one’s account" or just constituting or regarding Christ as sin with no sin placed in or upon His person, another mistake that many of these men make with regards to this verse, and for which I also discuss in more detail throughout this article. Again, Christ was “made sin” not with His own personal sins, but with ours. So to say that “personal moral qualities...cannot be transferred” from one person to another is absolutely wrong. This might be true with men, but it is not impossible with God. And isn’t that essentially what the Lord allowed to happen to us when Adam sinned? Was not the result of his original sin imparted or attributed to us through no fault of our own? And what about us becoming partakers of Christ's divine nature and holiness? Has not God's moral qualities and attributes been transferred to us?

So, according to these men, Christ didn't actually become us with all of our sins both within and without in order to destroy sin both in Him and in us, but only to remove the "guilt," doing nothing about the indwelling sin within us. According to these men, and many like them, indwelling sin still remains in us. Christ bore the burden of the judgment for "the guilt" of that sin, but He did not remove the sin in us in His person. Again, according to these men, Christ removed just "the guilt" from us, but not the sin. But as I have said elsewhere, Rom. 6:6, 2Cor. 5:21, and Rom. 8:3 (along with Lev. 16 and a handful of other verses) argue otherwise. But these men, and all those in league with them, beg to differ.

Now Charles Hodge even says in his commentary on Romans, that the bondage to sin that we have been released from in Romans 6, is not the same kind of bondage to sin that still remains within us in Romans 7. Under Rom. 7:14, Hodge states how that Paul wasn’t sold under the power of sin as those mentioned in 1Kin. 21:20 and 2Kin. 17:17 who deliberately chose to sin as their (or his) master and to which they (or he) was devoted to doing, due to the fact of what some believe (and maybe even Hodge) to be the “passive” nature of this Greek verb piprasko in v.14 for our English translation “having been sold” (which, by the way, does not mean Paul was “passive” with regards to sin, but only that he was “passively” sold to the sin by another; namely, Adam, who subjugated all of us to the sin inherent in all who are unregenerate). And so it is in this "passive" sense of not being deliberately devoted as a slave to sin (as Hodge notes of all those who are devoted to it in chapter six who are “unrenewed”), that it is “from this kind of bondage believers are redeemed, vi. 22.”(i) And then Hodge continues to to say here under verse 14:
But there is another kind of bondage [here in Romans 7]. A man may be subject to a power which, of himself, he cannot effectually resist; against which he may and does struggle, and from which he earnestly desires to be free; but which, notwithstanding all his efforts, still asserts its authority. This is precisely the bondage to sin of which every believer is [still] conscious [of]. He feels that there is a law in his members bringing him into subjection to the law of sin; that his distrust of God, his hardness of heart, his love of the world and of self, his pride, in short his indwelling sin, is a real power from which he longs to be free, against which he struggles, but from which he cannot emancipate himself. This is the kind of bondage of which the apostle here speaks...” (j)
Again, all of this is nothing more than a bunch of double-talk. It is absolute confusion. And who is the author of confusion? And if all that were not enough, under verse 15 Hodge again writes after quoting Paul, as saying:
"For what I would, that do I not; but what I hate, that do I." This is a further description of this state of bondage.... Pride, coldness, slothfulness, and other feelings which he disapproves and hates, are, day by day, reasserting their power over him. He struggles against their influence, groans beneath their bondage, longs to be filled with meekness, humility, and all other fruits of the love of God, but finds he can neither of himself, nor by the aid of the law, effect his freedom from what he hates, or the full performance of what he desires and approves. Every evening witnesses his penitent confession of his degrading bondage, his sense of utter helplessness, and his longing desire for aid from above. He is a slave looking and longing for liberty.” (k)
I kid you not: Distrust of God, hardness of heart, Paul’s love of the world and of self, his pride, his coldness and slothfulness—in short: his indwelling sin—is still holding him as a captive slave to all of these vices, and then some. I hope you are just as flabbergasted by all of this as I am. Paul “of himself” as a believer, according to Hodge and all those in league with him, is still “a slave [to sin] looking and longing for liberty.” (l) Away with such foolish thinking about ourselves. Away with such utter and absolute nonsense.

So there you have it. But, if on the other hand, Christ has indeed dealt a death-blow to that subjective power of sin in Romans 7, in Romans 8:3 (which He has), and for which Hodge and many others of his persuasion so vehemently deny, then Hodge's house of cards all comes tumbling down, forcing both himself and others to rethink (and to rewrite) all that they have ever said about our blessed Vicarious Penal Substitute and Identification. But in Hodge's case, it's a little too late for that now.

Hodge could clearly see that what Paul says in Romans 6 goes against what he believes with regards to Romans 7, so he twists the Scriptures to say what they are not saying. And he's done this as well with Christ only bearing the "guilt" of our sin, rather than being actually made sin; being just a sin-offering, rather than being made flesh with sin in it, for sin, and in order to condemn the sin (our sin) in His flesh, as well as in ours.

Now, with all things being considered, the ruling thought of Romans 8:1-4 (and especially verse 2), as correctly articulated by reformed pastor John Murray, “have respect to our deliverance from the power of sin, rather than just deliverance from the guilt of sin. The thought moves in the realm of internal operation and not in that of objective accomplishment….There does not appear to be good warrant for supposing, as has been done by many interpreters, that the reference is to the expiatory action of God in the sacrifice of Christ.”(m) And Murray refers to these ‘many interpreters’ in a footnote as: "Calvin, Philippi, Hodge, Haldane, Shedd, ad loc.". Yes, Charles Hodge is on Murray’s list of those of whom he is in stark contrast with. Murray continues, “While it is true that the work of Christ in reference to sin was expiatory and in that respect involved for him the vicarious endurance of the condemnation due to sin, yet the expiatory accomplishment is not defined in terms of the condemnation of sin.”(n) It is the condemnation of the flesh with sin in it (or, "the flesh of sin," the sinful nature, or the old man), as already laid out for us everywhere else in this article.

In tandem with what Paul says in verses 1-11 in chapter 8, Paul sums it all up again with the words, “Therefore, brothers, we have an obligation—but it is not to the sinful nature [or the flesh], to live according to it. For if you live according to the sinful nature [the flesh], you will die; but if by the Spirit you put to death the misdeeds of the [physical] body, you will live, because those who are led by the Spirit of God are sons of God. For you did not receive a spirit that makes you a slave [to sin] again to fear, but you received the Spirit of sonship” (vv. 12-15, ‘84 NIV). As Jesus said, “Everyone practicing sin is a slave of sin. Now the slave abides not in the house forever, but the son belongs to it forever. So if the Son sets you free, you will be free indeed” (Jhn. 8:34-36). Free from what? Free from being slaves to sin! Sons of God live as what sons born of God are suppose to do—which is to live free from sin! In juxtaposition to this, slaves to sin do what naturally comes for them to do—which is to be enslaved to sin. This is the antithesis between one who is in and of the flesh in Romans 7-8, verses one who is in and of the Spirit. The condemnation of judgment resulting in death is the fruit of the former; no condemnation resulting in death is the the fruit of the latter due to the fact that sin has been condemned in both Christ's flesh, and in ours. Hallelujah!. The sin principle is no longer in me! That little leaven that leavens the whole lump has been eradicated from our lives. "Crucified!" I believe, are the words of St. Paul. "Circumcised!" under another guise.
(a) Charles Hodge, Romans (Carlisle: Banner of Truth, 1835), p. 254. Bold emphasis and italics mine; words in brackets mine.
(b) Ibid., p. 249. Bold emphasis and italics mine; words in brackets mine.
(c) Ibid. Bold emphasis and italics mine; words in brackets mine.
(d) Ibid. Bold emphasis and italics mine.
(e) The Atonement, pp. 169-170.
(f) Ibid, p. 169.
(g) Ibid, p. 174.
(h) Accessed online at: biblehub.com.
(i) Romans, p. 230.
(j) Ibid. 230.
(k) Ibid, pp. 230-231.
(l) Ibid.
(m) John Murray, The Epistle to the Romans (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1965), p. 277. Bold emphasis and italics mine. Words in brackets mine except for those whom Murray has referred to of whom he is in disagreement with.
(n) Ibid. Emphasis his.
[27] John Murray, The Epistle to the Romans (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1959), pp. 279. Words in bold italics mine.
[28] A. T. Robertson, A Grammar of the Greek NT in the Light of Historical Research (Nashville: Broadman Press, 1934), p. 784.

Christ Our Substitute and Identification (3 of 6)



Our Sin Transferred and Imputed to Christ, His Righteousness Imputed and Transferred to Us

Now if Christ was without sin in and upon His entire human nature at the time of His crucifixion upon the cross, then there would have been no just cause for the wrath of God to have been poured out upon Him in our stead; just as there would have no just cause for God to have judged Adam if he had not personally transgressed. Adam was a “type” of Christ in practically every respect. So we are not just talking about “reckoning” someone as “guilty” for no sin of their own, as true as this may also be ofttimes in the Scriptures; we are talking about both Adam and Christ becoming actually guilty as charged (or “reckoned” as such by God), and then imputing (or reckoning) and imparting to all of us based upon nothing that we have done, but based upon what Adam and Christ have each done respectively for all of us in our union with them as our federal heads. To be sure, both ideas presented above about “imputation” are not without biblical precedent. We often speak of the latter with regards to God not imputing or reckoning someone’s own sins (or even righteousness) to themselves based upon no work of their own, but the former is just as true in the Bible with regards to God reckoning someone guilty for their own sins. In fact, what was just stated above about God not reckoning someone’s own sins to themselves implies that someone’s own sins can be imputed to them. A few examples can be cited in the Scriptures with regards to this latter idea. But one in particular comes to mind where the actual Greek word used in the NT for “imputation,” logizamai, is the actual word used in the Greek Septuagint in its translation of the Hebrew word used for imputation in Lev. 17:4. The verse reads as such in the Septuagint, starting in verse 3:
Every man of the children of Israel, or of the strangers abiding among you, who shall kill a calf, or a sheep, or a goat in the camp, or who shall kill it out of the camp, and shall not bring it to the door of the tabernacle of witness, so as to sacrifice it for a whole-burnt-offering or peace-offering to the Lord to be acceptable for a sweet-smelling savour: and whosoever shall slay it without, and shall not bring it to the door of the tabernacle of witness, so as to offer it as a gift to the Lord before the tabernacle of the Lord; blood shall be imputed to that man, he has shed blood; that soul shall be cut off from his people.
This verse above is succinct and to the point, needing no further explanation. The person committing this offense before the Lord is “imputed” or reckoned as guilty for the crime. And the same is to be noted in both the Hebrew and the Greek Septuagint with regards to Shimei in 2Sam. 19:19, where he implores David not to “impute” (Gk. logizamai) him as “guilty” for the wrong that he did unto David. The International Standard Bible Encyclopedia (I.S.B.E) also notes how this idea of someone being imputed or reckoned as “guilty” in a forensic manner for their own sin is implied or inferred in Lev. 5:12; 7:18; 19:8 and 22:9. And Psm. 32:2, along with Rom. 4:8 and 2Cor. 5:19, are just a few more examples in which God is not imputing or reckoning someone’s own sins to themselves, again, implying that they can be. But like I said, Lev.17:4 (as well as 2Sam. 19:19) is undeniably definitive in this regards.

Verses that imply just the opposite idea of “reckoning” someone or something as “guilty” for no personal crime of their own, are seen in: Gen. 31:15; 43:9; 44:32; Lev. 16:22; 1Kin. 1:21; Isa. 53:11; Lam. 5:7; Num. 18:27, 30; 33:22. So, for the sake of argument, when we are normally discussing the “imputation” of sin or of righteousness, we are talking about being charged guilty or or not guilty through no work or action on our part through each of our respective federal heads of either being “in Adam” or “in Christ.” But when we are referring to “impartation,” we are referring to the inherent attributes that each of us receives through each of these respective federal heads in our union with them, and, of course, those inherent attributes that Christ receives from us in His identification and union with us. Clearly, we cannot pigeonhole the word “imputation” to mean just one idea of us being reckoned for something based upon no work of our own, at the expense of it also being used to denote something that is reckoned to someone as an action belonging to them, and for which they are required to own up to. But, like I said, for the sake of argument in this discussion, “imputation” is normally used throughout this article to denote the former idea, not the latter; especially as it relates to us being reckoned as "guilty" for Adam's disobedience (or his sin), or us being reckoned as "not guilty" for Christ's obedience (or His righteousness). But being reckoned as either "guilty," or "not guilty," always implies an act of either disobedience or obedience somewhere along the line. No one is just reckoned either guilty or not guilty absent of any sin or righteousness, either by themselves or by someone else — an error that Charles Hodge and his son Archibald Hodge had succumbed to for their own a priori theological reasons.

John Murray makes note of these two differing ideas noted above with regards to the use of this word “imputation” in his book, The Imputation of Adam’s Sin. And on page 71, in the context of understanding that the word is also used to denote being reckoned or imputed for something we have not done, Murray notes how that, “The word has been widely used, however, in this connection and there is no good reason for abandoning its use,” with regards to how it is used in Romans 5 and elsewhere. I do not demur. But at the same time, John Murray also realized that God imputing someone’s own sins to themselves is a truth that should not be overlooked in favor of the other idea of God not imputing someone’s own sins to themselves only for a priori theological reasons, as John Murray also notes of Charles Hodge (and company) who try to rob the atonement of its intimacy of Christ actually bearing our sins in and upon His person, and then say that Christ only bore the “guilt,” not the actual sin, as the only obligation required by God to satisfy justice. As Charles Hodge’s son, Archibald Hodge says, our sins “remain ours in order that they may be to Him the sins of another.”[1] This all sounds good on the surface, but what Hodge means by this is that our sins were NOT actually placed in and upon Christ’s person. In other words, our sin never actually became as it were, Christ’s sin. They “remain all the while inalienably ours”[2] And Hodge enforces this idea by saying that imputation, by the very nature of the case, does not transfer inherent personal sins. Hodge is right when he says that “imputation” does not “transfer” the personal inherent sins of one person to another, and he says this in the defense that our sins were never placed in and upon Christ’s person. But we are not talking about the transference of our sins to Christ by imputation. We are talking about Christ becoming “sinful flesh” (Rom. 8:3) or “made sin” (2Cor. 5:21) as our Scapegoat (Lev. 16:8, 20-22 ) with our sins, when He became cursed of God on the tree (or cross), and for which Hodge also begs to differ. But on the contrary, our sin did indeed become Christ’s sin at that moment in time. And it was at that time that He was “imputed” or “reckoned” as “guilty” as charged with our sins place in and upon His person as an actual substitute sinner in our stead. Hodge (and company) viewed imputation in Christ’s case as only being charged “guilty” for another person’s crimes, ruling out the idea that Christ could actually be “imputed” or reckoned “guilty” for what seems to be His own crimes and misdemeanors; and so Christ, by the very nature of the case, according to these men, could not have had our sins placed in and upon His person and be charged as such. But, again, in Christ’s case (unlike Adam) He was not being charged or reckoned “guilty” for His own sins, but for ours. But our sins, nevertheless, indeed became as it were—His sins! Christ owned up to them and was charged or reckoned for them as if they were His own sins. Of course, most will not see this if they still see themselves as the person described in Romans 7. For them, Christ did not crucify our flesh (or the old sinful heart and nature), as denoted in Gal. 5:24 (and in Rom. 6:6).

Of a truth, we own up to Adam’s sin becoming inherently or personally our sin; Christ owns up to our sin(s) becoming inherently or personally His sin(s); and we own up to Christ’s righteousness becoming inherently or personally our righteousness with us thus becoming partakers of His divine nature; no more being slaves to sin, but slaves to God and to righteousness which leads unto holiness (Rom. 6:19-22). As Cranfield had earlier stated concerning Christ, it was “a matter of starting from where we start, subjected to all the evil pressures which we inherit, and using the altogether unpromising and unsuitable material of our corrupt nature to work out a perfect, sinless obedience.”[3] Again, our sins were actually and really placed in and upon Christ’s person as if He had Himself committed the crimes. So, in a real sense, Christ was considered guilty as charged by becoming as an actual sinner in our stead for our sins placed in and upon His person. Christ was not just pronounced “guilty,” absent of any sin; our sin actually became His sin and for which He was reckoned: “guilty.”

The sin which is spiritually on a personal level “inherited” by all, in God’s sight can easily become disinherited by just the touch of His finger. Impossible with men, but not impossible with God. It is a circumcision not made with men’s hands, but with God’s. Just the opposite happened with Adam, with us, with Christ, and then changed for us in the circumcision of Christ unto our old Adamic human nature known as: “the old man” (Rom. 6:6; Col. 3:9; Eph. 4:22) or the old “heart of stone” (Ezk. 11:19; 36:26). What God allowed to be put upon Adam, upon us via Adam, and upon Christ via becoming us in the exercise of His wisdom and power, was at the touch of His finger just as easily reversed for some of us to show forth His love, grace, and mercy. Has not the Potter the power over the clay, to make vessels to honor and some to dishonor? Has not God shut up all under disobedience, that He might show mercy upon all (Rom. 11:32)? Oh, the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of God! How unsearchable are His judgments and unfathomable His ways!....For from Him and through Him and to Him are all things. To Him be the glory forever. Amen. (Rom. 11:33, 36). The utter and absolute “foolishness” of the cross is the wisdom and power of God. No wonder many Jews could not believe in Christ, for how could such a benefactor for them be allowed by God to be cursed of God to hell on a tree? How “foolish,” so they thought. But Christ wasn’t doing it for His own benefit, but for ours. Oh foolish, and slow of heart, were those Jews to not believe all that the Law and the prophets had said concerning the Christ, that He must suffer these things (Lk. 24:25-26).

Of no doubt, before the fall Adam was inherently without sin and without God (internally in his spirit), and became that way through no work of his own. Upon his fall, Adam became inherently sinful and without God, and became that way through his own personal sin. In Adam, we too were inherently made sin and without God, and became that way through no personal sin of our own. And upon the cross, Christ was inherently made sin with our sin and without God (even “forsaken” of God at that moment and time), and became that way through no personal sin of His own. After the death His human body and soul, Christ (the antitype of Samson the Nazerite) cast off the power and chains of sin and darkness and was inherently and spiritually made alive in His human spirit (1Pet. 3:18; 1Tim. 3:16) and thus with God, and became that way through His own personal righteousness. And in Christ, we too are inherently made righteous and with God, and have become that way through no work of our own. Do you see the patterns and parallels? Do you see how that in almost every respect Adam was a “type” of Christ, not only positionally in a penal or judicial sense, but practically as well? All that was begun in Adam and imputed to him for his own sin, and imputed to us for no personal sin of our own but for Adam’s sin, was reversed and completed (or “finished”) in Christ with our sin being imputed to Christ’s person as if He had personally committed the crime, yet for no personal sin of His own—just as it happened to us with Adam. In return, Christ’s righteousness is judicially imputed to us for no personal righteousness of our own. Yet in all of these particular cases we can see how that “sin” or “righteousness” actually become inherently ours as concomitant with the biblical doctrine of imputation. And except for Adam, in all cases we see that what has occurred to us—and to Christ—is through no fault or work of our own. Thus, in Adam as our former federal head we were constituted and made sinners through no fault of our own; in Christ’s union and identification with us as our federal Head He was constituted and made as a sinner through no fault of His own; and in Christ as our federal Head we become constituted and made righteous through no work of our own. In Adam, all die; whereas, in Christ, all are made alive. The “all” in Christ are not the “all” in Adam; otherwise, all would have to be made alive in juxtaposition of all who die in Adam. The Bible supports this latter idea, where even in Eph. 1:4 Paul says: “For He [God] chose us in Him [Christ] before the creation of the world to be holy and blameless in His sight. In love He predestined us for adoption to sonship through Jesus Christ, in accordance with His pleasure and will.” All of this speaks of a federal union and headship of being either in Adam or in Christ. Federal headship refers to the representation of a group united under a governmental federation or covenant. For example, a country's president may be seen as the federal head of their nation, representing and speaking on its behalf before the rest of the world. All the world fell into sin through their covenantal relationship of works in Adam (Rom. 5:12, 15-19). All those chosen in Christ through a covenantal relationship of grace even before Adam's fall, are all predestined to be effectually called, justified, and glorified (Rom. 5:15-19; 8:30).

Reformed theology, using the model of federal headship where all of humanity is covenantally represented by Adam, sees also believers (or God’s predestined or elect “children of promise” in Rom. 9:8 and Gal. 4:28) as also represented covenantally by Christ—as witnessed with Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, et al, who are likewise said to be God’s elect “children of promise” (Rom. 9:8). Being God’s “child of promise” presupposes this idea. It screams “election” before the fact, not after the fact (see also Rom. 9:11 in the context of being “children of promise”). As such, we are the sheep that Christ said He came to die for (Jhn. 10:15; Eph. 5:25); not only from the lost sheep of the house of Israel, but also for all of the children of God scattered abroad throughout all the the world—in other words, not only for the Jews but also for the Gentiles (Jhn. 10:16; 11:51-52). This is “the world” of God’s elect Gentiles that Paul describes for us in Rom. 11:12 and 15, in juxtaposition to God’s elect Jews also described for us in Rom. 11:2-5, 12, 15, 28. When the Jews said “the world (Gk. kosmos)” is gone after Christ in John 12:19, they didn’t understand in their usage of “the world” to denote everyone in the world, but only those Jews (and definitely not the mass of Gentiles at that time) who had gone after Christ.

So, in light of what was has been said above about federal headship, and those represented by such a federal head, our federal union with Christ is of the same order, and involves the same class of effects, as did our federal union with Adam. And it is of such a nature as to involve an identity of legal relations and reciprocal obligations and rights from us to Christ, and from Christ to us as our federal representative Head. So of necessity, there had to be a relation between Christ and His people before He could actually deliver them from their sin. From the foundation of the world was our Lamb slain for us (Rev. 13:8; Acts 2:23; 4:28; Eph. 1:4-5). Christ became a substitution for us, because in essence He had to become one with us in being “made sin” or “sinful flesh,” and identify with us so that we could in turn identify with Him as His body and He as our Head. For what fellowship hath righteousness with unrighteousness? And what communion hath light with darkness? And what concord hath Christ with Belial? (2Cor. 6:14-15). Of necessity, a change had to occur within us and for us in order that we could be with our righteous Lord in heaven.

So, who, or what, are we again exactly “in Christ”? First of all, we are united in Christ in terms of our decretive election in Him from the foundation of the world (Eph. 1:1-5). Secondly, we are united in Christ in terms of our federal union in a covenantal relationship of grace with Him (He is the Head, and we are His body; Col. 1:18; 2:19). And, thirdly, we are united in Christ in terms of our personal or vital union in Him in our baptism into death with Him both spiritually and physically, with us also being raised with Him to walk in newness of life (Romans 6). All that belongs to us in our spiritual baptism into Christ is both of a legal and organic union according to spiritual laws set in motion by God. Thus, the communion in grace which the members of the invisible church have with Christ, is their partaking of the virtue of His mediation in their justification, their adoption, their sanctification, and whatever else in this life manifests our union and participation with Him. And in virtue of this union or oneness, which God’s elect have with Christ by faith, we are accounted (both forensically and practically) to have done and suffered whatever Christ did and suffered for us as our representative federal Head, as well as in how He walked circumspectly before us as an example for us to follow (1Jhn. 2:6; 1Pet. 2:21), once we become spiritually dead (or crucified) to the power behind our sins and trespasses.

John Murray has well said that our, “union with Christ is...the central truth of the whole doctrine of salvation.... It is not simply a phase of the application of redemption; it underlies every aspect of redemption”[4] And this “every aspect” included Christ dying for us as our Kinsman-Redeemer with our sins placed upon His person, in order to remove them as far as the east is from the west both judicially and practically. There is no other way that we could have been saved before God both without and within, justified and sanctified, except for the fact of what Christ of necessity had to do for us on the tree, reversing the curse that Adam had imposed upon us via eating from a tree which invoked the curse.

The federal relation of Christ to His people before the foundation of the world was a very real one, and upon which God deemed it just to punish Christ for the sins of His people and actually impute their sins (and the power behind those sins) to His entire human nature or person for not only judicial reasons, but for practical reasons as well; and this, in turn, was to impute to His people Christ’s righteousness (and the power behind that righteousness) both judicially and experientially, in order to completely satisfy all the demands of God’s law that were due of His people. As the result of this union, Christ was in all things (and not just in some things) “made like unto his brethren” (Heb. 2:17), being “numbered (or reckoned) with transgressors” (Isa. 53:12). And in consequence of this federal union with us, Christ is also made to us “a quickening Spirit” (1 Cor. 15:45) so that, in due time, each of His people become a living and vital member in union of that spiritual body of which Christ is their federal Head (Eph. 1:19-23).

As Arthur Pink also states here:
The relation between Christ and those who benefit from His Atonement was, therefore, no vague, indefinite, haphazard one; but consisted of an actual covenant oneness, legal identity, [and] vital union. Suretyship presupposes it. Strict substitution demands it. Real imputation proceeds upon it. The penalty Christ endured could not otherwise have been inflicted. They for whom Satisfaction was made do, by inevitable necessity, share its benefits and receive what was purchased for them. This alone meets the objection of the injustice of the Innocent suffering for the guilty, as it alone explains the transfer of Christ's sufferings and merits to the redeemed [as their representative and federal Head]. [5]
Again, Pink writes:
More than a thousand years ago, Augustine remarked, “Such is the ineffable closeness of this transcendental union, that we hear the voice of the members suffering, when they suffered in their Head, and cried through the Head on the cross, ‘My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?’ And, in like manner, we hear the voice of the Head suffering, when He suffered in His members, and cried to the persecutor on the way to Damascus “Saul, Saul, why persecute you Me?” (Acts 9:4).” [6]
And, finally, Pink again notes here:
Christ entered into this world not as a private individual, but in an official character as the covenant-Head of God’s elect, as their legal Representative... Accordingly, God dealt with Him as the Representative of His criminal people, inflicting upon Him all that their sins merited. As the sin-bearing Substitute of His people, Christ was justly exposed to all the dreadful consequences of God's manifested displeasure.... It is in the closing scenes of “the days of His flesh” that we may the more fully discover Christ occupying the place of His sinful people, and receiving from God that which was due them. Even where we behold Him before men, that which transpired is to be read and interpreted in the light of His vicarious position and His complete identification with His guilty people. [7]
Christ said to one of His sheep, John the Baptist: “Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becomes us to fulfill all righteousness” (Mat. 3:15). Here Jesus expresses His relation to His people, to those on whose behalf He was sent to bear their sins and have them remitted and washed away in His person. The reason given was: “for thus it becomes US,” not just Me personally, but “US” to fulfill all righteousness—Christ becoming one with those for whom He had come to save! Thus, the federal relationship between Christ and His people is seen right from the start—and even as far back as His incarnation in human flesh! Christ’s language thus intimated here in Him being baptized by John: It is suitable that I should appear in the “likeness of sinful flesh,” identifying Myself with them in “confessing their sins” (Mark 1:5). Thus, passing beneath the waters of Jordan was a fitting emblem of all those “waves and billows” (Psm. 42:7) of God’s wrath which would no sooner break over our Head.

Admittedly, a lot of this just said above in this last paragraph was from the mouth of Arthur Pink, with a few of my own thoughts and ideas interspersed throughout. And while I do not agree with everything that Pink has to say with regards to this subject, I would highly recommend reading this great work of his on The Satisfaction of Christ, especially as it relates to the “nature” of Christ’s work as our Kinsman-Redeemer. Pink gives us keen insight into our federal union with our Head, long before any of us were ever born. We were God’s elect long before the idea of “election” even became coined as a word in the Bible. Again, Christ was slain for His people that were written in His book, even before the foundation of the world (Rev. 13:8). And the fact that God sent forth His Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and for sin, intimates that Jesus entered into the condition of His people in an intimate and personal union with them as their merciful Substitute and Surety; even as a Friend who sticks closer than a brother.

For us to have union in and with Christ as our federal Head, it means that we must be one with Him in holiness. And if we are to be “one” with Him, then it means that, due to our sinful state that Christ foreknew of us, that He had to be our Lamb slain even from the foundation of the world; and so of necessity Christ had to make us one with Him by crucifying our old man in Adam and making us a new man in Himself. We had to spiritually die inside to sin, before we could be resurrected to live a life of holiness. A change had to occur within us. For without death to us and to the sin of who we use to be in our union with Adam, there is no resurrection for us while we are still in such a state of sin and death. As such, we remain: dead! Death to sin had to become us, in order that we could rise to holiness and be with God. As God’s children in federal union with Christ before the very foundation of the world, there had to be a complete reversal of what transpired with Adam to us, in order to bring many sons unto glory. No man can bring a clean thing out of an unclean thing. The only man for the job was the God-man, our Lord and Savior, Jesus Christ.

The suffering, pain, and sin placed in and upon Christ, had no power whatsoever over Him to overshadow His own previous personal righteousness and holiness. Christ's bleeding-out as our sinless Substitute was to obtain the blood that was needed to effect the atonement. It mattered not so much that Christ was made sin; more importantly, it mattered that His unblemished blood atoned for sin. Christ being made sin was only secondary and consequential to the shedding of His unblemished and righteous blood. But the former could not be absent in the accomplishment of the latter. Sin not only needed to be atoned for, but it had to be removed from us. And this is why Christ was made sin in His human nature, in a nature like ours, in order to free us from our sins for all those who are united in Him. And this distinction of Christ atoning for sin as our sinless Substitute, prior to actually being made sin upon His death upon the cross, is clearly represented for us in one of the two goats presented before the Lord in Leviticus 16 whose blood actually made the atonement for sin[7a], before the other goat actually received the sins of the people in order to carry them away into a dry and arid region or wilderness—a symbol in the Scriptures of the consequences of sin where there is no water of life to sustain anyone. As typically seen in this ceremony (and not so apparent in the other ceremonies where the laying on of hands occurred), our sins in and upon Christ could not hold Him down due to His own previous sinlessness and unblemished blood. As Paul also claims in Acts 2:24, the pains and agony of death could not hold Christ down. The strong man was bound by One stronger than he. Therefore, Christ’s own personal sinlessness and righteous blood was the vicarious condemnation and damnation to the power of sin both in us and in Him, that could not hold any of us under the power of Sheol. As such, Christ led captivity, captive, and gave gifts unto men.

As noted a little earlier above, Archibald Hodge had noted in his book, The Atonement, how that the transference of any or all sin (and even the moral depravity or corruption behind it all) can only be “possibly” by “generation” and, therefore, by the very nature of the case Christ could not have had our sins (let alone the moral depravity and corruption behind those sins), transferred to Him and thus be imputed or reckoned as “guilty” for them, for us. So Hodge (and even his father, Charles) argues that Christ could only be charged “guilty” for our sins, but not charged “guilty” for our sins being actually placed in and upon His person. This is Hodge’s argument, and of all those who are in league with him. For they, like most, will always believe that they will forever remain with their “indwelling sin,” until they go home to be with the Lord. But hasn’t Christ already now purchased this wonderful redemption and freedom from sin for us both within and without? Isn’t that what Paul belabors over for us in Romans 6? And if that is the case, which it is, then what should that tell us about the person whom Paul is describing for us in Romans 7? If you still believe that about yourself, then it will blind you to truth, as it has for countless others, as to how all of this is truly to be understood and experienced by us in God’s holy and life-changing Word.

So, after now being of a sound mind and heart based upon all that has been said above, it is at this venture that I must with tongue-in-cheek readily admit without any reservation, that just as Adam’s sin was imputed to us, and the moral depravity or power he invoked for this sin, was transferred to us in our union and identification with him through no personal sin of our own; our sin, and the moral depravity or power behind our sin, was likewise transferred and imputed to our federal Head in His union and identification with us through no personal sin of His own; and in like manner, Christ’s righteousness has been imputed to us, and the moral fortitude or power (absent of the depravity) behind our personal righteousness has been transferred to us in our union and identification with Him through no personal righteousness of our own. Please bear with me, more will be said that can leave us with no other conclusion than what has just been delineated in all the above. But I will say this, for those who like to quote the reformers, and if it helps anyone for the better, Calvin believed Christ descended into hell. And Christ descended into hell for one reason: to put a death to our spiritual death and the power behind that death; not just behind physical death, but behind being spiritually dead in sins and trespasses. And to these latter ideas all would wholeheartedly agree. But HOW did Christ do that? By just dying physically? Not at all. And I deal with all of this more extensively throughout this discussion. But suffice it to say, Calvin writes:
If any one now ask, Did Christ descend to hell at the time when he deprecated death? I answer, that this was the commencement, and that from it we may infer how dire and dreadful were the tortures which he endured when he felt himself standing at the bar of God as a criminal in our stead.... Nothing had been done if Christ had only endured corporeal [or physical] death. In order to interpose between us and God’s anger, and satisfy his righteous judgment, it was necessary that he should feel the weight of divine vengeance. Whence also it was necessary that he should engage, as it were, at close quarters with the powers of hell and the horrors of eternal death.... Hence there is nothing strange in its being said that he descended to hell, seeing he endured the death which is inflicted on the wicked by an angry God.... [T]he [Apostle’s] Creed appropriately adds the invisible and incomprehensible judgment [of "he descended into hell"] which he endured before God, to teach us that not only was the body of Christ given up as the price of redemption, but that there was a greater and more excellent price—that he bore in his soul the tortures of condemned and ruined man... Death held us under its yoke, but he in our place delivered himself into its power, that he might exempt us from it... that by fellowship with him he mortifies our earthly members, that they may not afterwards exert themselves in action, and kills the old man, that he may not hereafter be in vigour [sic] and bring forth fruit.... Our salvation may be thus divided between the death and the resurrection of Christ: by the former sin was abolished and death annihilated; by the latter righteousness was restored and life revived, the power and efficacy of the former being still [or stopped], bestowed upon us by means of the latter. [8]
Calvin rightly says that Christ killed our old man while incurring a spiritual death in hell for us. The death to our old man was not upon Christ physically dying, but by His “soul” experiencing the spiritual pangs of the spiritual death and torment due us, and then reversing it all due to His own personal holy and blameless life. As Spurgeon succinctly notes in his 310th sermon on ChristOur Substitute: “If the warp and woof is speckled, how shall he bring forth the robe of milk-white purity and wrap it about our loins? He must be a spotless one who shall become the representative of his people, either to give them a passive or active righteousness”; in other words, to give us both a positional righteousness and a practical righteousness. Christ couldn’t be “holden” of death, according to Acts 2:24, for the very reason that in Himself He was blameless before God. What Adam began for all of his posterity, Christ finished and reversed for all of His posterity. It had to be so, in order for us to stand righteous before God in Christ’s righteousness both forensically and experientially. Sinners do not go home to be with the Lord, saints do. This is why John says the one born of God does not continue in sin, due to the fact that God’s “seed” (or regenerating sperma) has been impregnated in us. Calvin, in quoting Hilary, writes: "'to this descent [into hell] we owe our exemption from death.' Nor does he [Hilary] dissent from this view in other passages, as when he says, 'The cross, death, hell, are our life.'"[9] Calvin goes on to say of those who harshly disagreed with him:
Here some miserable creatures, who, though unlearned, are however impelled more by malice than ignorance, cry out that I am offering an atrocious insult to Christ... It becomes us, therefore (as Ambrose truly teaches), boldly to profess the agony of Christ, if we are not ashamed of the cross. And certainly had not his soul shared in the punishment, he would have been a Redeemer of bodies only. The object of his struggle was to raise up those who were lying prostrate [not just physically, but spiritually as well]... These men [or detractors] pretend that a thing in its nature vicious is improperly ascribed to Christ; as if they were wiser than the Spirit of God... There is no reason, therefore, to take alarm at infirmity in Christ, infirmity to which he submitted not under the constraint of violence and necessity, but merely because he loved and pitied us. Whatever he spontaneously suffered, detracts in no degree from his majesty. One thing which misleads these detractors is, that they do not recognize in Christ an infirmity which was pure and free from every species of taint, inasmuch as it was kept within the limits of obedience.... Hence it appears that these triflers, with whom I am disputing, presume to talk of what they know not, never having seriously considered what is meant and implied by ransoming us from the justice of God. It is of consequence to understand aright how much our salvation cost the Son of God.” [10]
Christ came and suffered in the place of all of His elect, so that by Him enduring the full vials of God's wrath, they might be emptied out and not a drop ever fall upon the heads of His blood-bought people. Spurgeon likewise believed that Christ actually bore our sin. And on a similar note to all that has been said above, he writes:
As Christ did not share in the original depravity, so He did not share in the imputed sin of Adam which we have inherited—not, I mean, in Him personally, though He took the consequences of that, as He stood as our representative.... He lay not in Adam when he sinned, and consequently no guilt from Adam, either of depravity of nature, or of distance from God, ever fell upon Jesus as the result of anything that Adam did. I mean, that, upon Jesus as considered in Himself, though He certainly took the sin of Adam as He was the representative of His people on earth." [11]
It is not certain if Spurgeon believed that Christ also took the depravity of Adam as well, but his statements above sure seem to lean this way. He surely believed Christ took Adam's sin, along with the blame for his sin, as well as ours; for Adam (as well as Eve) was, after all, one of God's chosen children wrapped in the skins of the animal provided for him and his wife by God.

Of necessity, Christ had to bear in His soul the depravity, principle or power behind our sin in order for it to be crucified in us. It would do us no good just to remove our sins, for then they would just keep coming back to haunt us over and over again. In light of this seemingly conundrum that we have with sin, it is our members in our bodies that we must now "mortify," not our heart (Rom. 6:11f; 8:13; 13:14; Col. 3:5). The latter was taken care of, in Christ, in the spiritual operation of our old heart known as: "circumcision." This is our "old man" that Paul says repeatedly was crucified in us and put off from us as old clothing, with us thus being clothed inside with the "new man" created in Christ (see my article: Created In God's Image, Not Adam's).

Now, with regards to this idea of the immorality and character of sin (or even of the morality and character of righteousness) being “transferred” only by “generation” (as A. A. Hodge put it), isn’t that what Adam has in fact done to us when he sinned, and what Christ has done to us through His righteousness? Even his father Charles admits of this much, when he says of the new heart given to us: "It implies a change of the whole character."[11a] And again, "the new spiritual life, imparted to the soul in regeneration... constitutes the believer's character."[11b] Of no doubt, we were not only positionally made sinners in Adam, but we were actually made sinners as well as the old man. And we are not only positionally made righteous in Christ, but actually made righteous as well as the new man. The former was by natural “generation” (though all would agree that a spiritual union and impartation is to be understood in all of this as well), while the latter is also by a spiritual “regeneration” via the Seed (Gk. sperma, 1Jhn. 3:9) of the Spirit; and whereby we become the very children of God who become partakers of His divine nature and holiness, which are the very attributes and personal moral qualities and character of God (2Pet. 1:4; Heb. 12:10). So don’t tell me, as A. A. Hodge claims, that “the personal moral character,” "inherent moral quality" or "power" of another cannot be transferred to someone who wasn’t in and of themselves personally immoral or moral before. God allowed such a change to occur in Adam (albeit, in his case) for his own personal sin; to Christ with our sin; and then back to us again with Christ’s righteousness. Adam was born in the absolute moral image of God, and lost that moral image becoming morally depraved. In Adam, as his sons, we are spiritually born (or generated) to be sinners. And through Christ (or God), as His sons, we are spiritually born-again (or regenerated) to be righteous and holy. Isn’t this in essence what John is saying above in 1Jhn. 3:9, when he says that we cannot continue in sin because God’s “seed” (or, literally, sperm) remains in us? There isn’t a commentator that I know that understands this word used in this verse to mean anything otherwise. These are the cold, hard facts. We are born of God by a spiritual regeneration; which presupposes the idea of us being spiritually generated before this other spiritual regeneration ever took place. In opposition to Hodge, even Calvin readily admits: “‘He [Christ] was numbered with the transgressors’ (Is. liii. 12; Mark xv. 28). Why was it so? That He might bear the character of a sinner, not of a just or innocent person, inasmuch as He met death on account not of innocence, but of sin... Thus we perceive Christ representing the character of a sinner and a criminal...”[12] Calvin believed, unlike Hodge, that Christ actually bore all of our sin and all of our corruption in His person: “...though spotlessly pure, took upon Him the disgrace and ignominy of our iniquities, and in return clothed us with purity...the Father having destroyed the power of sin when it was transferred to the flesh of Christ.... [T]he power and curse of sin was destroyed in his flesh when he was offered as a sacrifice, on which the whole weight of our sins was laid”[13] Calvin had no problem in believing that Christ actually bore the “character” of the sinner. I have no problem with it. Although my own personal convictions about all of this have nothing whatsoever to do with how man thinks one way or the other. And maybe Calvin was just such a person that Hodge had in mind when Calvin spoke this way. For Hodge starkly renounces those who disagreed with him, without necessarily mentioning all of their names.

Now if what Hodge means by "personal moral character," as someone's own personal sinful traits or habits not being passed on to another, then I will give him the benefit of the doubt in assuming that this is what he means and also agree that such things are not passed on from one person to the next. And if this is in fact what he means by saying this, he surely does not believe that the "inherent moral quality" or "power" behind these sins (which I understand as moral character, qualities, or attributes) is transferable to Christ, especially if he doesn't believe our sins were transferable. But, again, what about Christ's own personal power, character, attributes and nature being transferred to us in order for us to no longer sin? Surely, Hodge believes that! Just read him for yourself: “Our evil nature remains inalienably our own UNTIL WE ARE CHANGED by the Holy Ghost in regeneration and sanctification.”[13a] What Hodge said earlier about what remains “inalienably ours” and not transferable to Christ, now by the touch of God’s hand is said by Hodge to be absolutely “changed” for us into what was inalienably Christ's own personal moral character, image and likeness. And this “change” of “character” from being made righteous to being made sinful flesh is exactly what occurred to Adam upon falling into sin, upon Christ when He became “cursed” like Adam and all of us, and upon all of us when we are “changed” from being sinful flesh to being made righteous by the Spirit of regeneration. And even Hodge also readily admits that what occurred with Christ in suffering on the cross for us in canceling the claims of penal justice, that it didn’t effect who He was before the cross by the fact that His prior active “obedience merited the rewards of the original covenant of life[13b] found in His unblemished blood. For the "life" is in the blood; it is "the blood that maketh an atonement for the soul" (Lev. 17:11). This is what I have been saying all along, but with much more to be understood and realized on what actually occurred with Christ on the cross for us both spiritually and physically. Again, many can see all of this with regards to us in Adam or us in Christ. But they just can’t for the likes of themselves envision this with regards to Christ as the son of man. Not as “the Son of God,” mind you, but as “the son of man.” Clearly, Christ is said by Paul to be “made sin” or “sinful flesh” by some type of spiritual generation via no less than by the spiritual transference of our sins upon our federal Head and Substitute, just as this spiritual principle occurred in Adam when he too was imputed for sin and found “guilty” before the bar of God. Spiritual laws were set in motion that condemned Adam both spiritually and physically. And the same spiritual law was set in motion when Christ was cursed and condemned as a Sinner worthy only of death both spiritually and physically in our stead. So, clearly, Christ in some manner or way inherited our sin and the “death through sin” both spiritually and physically. Jesus took our sin and actually owned it, as if it were His very own sin. And the only way that this can be understood is in the fact that when Christ was hung on the tree, that He really and truly became “cursed” of God for us. Christ was “cursed” of God which resulted in His condemnation and death (just as Adam was “cursed” of God which resulted in his condemnation and death for the transgression of God’s law given to him), with Christ likewise becoming dead through sin both spiritually and physically—through our sins and trespasses. For God’s law literally says: “Cursed of God is one who is suspended on a tree.” By way of hanging on that tree, our sin actually became Christ’s sin for which He in His person became “cursed” of God for. As John Stott says: “The curse was transferred from us to Him”[14] And by “the curse” being “transferred,” though Stott doesn’t tell us what he means by this, most likely he understands this (along with a handful of others) to mean: just the curse, but without the sin. But I can’t say for sure, without going back and reading all of his books again. But the fact remains here that Jesus’ own actual person with our sin placed upon Him is the object of this curse noted here. There was something about Christ personally at that moment and time that “cursed” Him with the curse due us; not separate or apart from His person, but actually upon His very humanity. Of a truth, our sin, and the curse for sin, was “transferred” to Christ not just forensically but actually; and not just physically but spiritually as well. And to this, almost all would agree in some manner or sense! So what did this “curse” upon Christ’s human nature entail? Surely not just some outward physical curse of some kind; for, again, the Greek text in Galatians says that Christ himself (or anyone else for that matter) was the object of the curse. Again, it is what Christ became in His person. As Bengel notes here: “Christ’s dying on the cross is called his becoming a curse; that is, an accursed person, a person ignominiously punished as a malefactor.”[15] The Pulpit Commentary likewise adds: “It was simply the suspension upon a cross that imparted to him, in the eye of the Law, this character of accursedness, of extreme abhorrent defilement.”[16] And, finally, Ellicott states: “The curse identifies itself with its object [or Christ]: seizes, as it were, upon the person of its victim.”[17] As such, Christ became the embodiment of our curse in His entire human (and now sinful) nature that was due us. The curse was not hanging on the tree; the curse was the result of hanging on a tree. The curse followed the death on the cross; it was not the means of the death. It was the result of the death causing Christ to be numbered (or judicially “reckoned”) with transgressors, not just outwardly on the cross with the two malefactors, but in Hades as well where it is said that He preached to the spirits in prison. And there are many commentators that exegetically lend credence to this fact as well. The bible does not say Christ was raised from “the death,” as if He was just raised from a physical death. It says He was raised “from the dead” (Eph. 1:20, et al), from the domain of all the departed spirits in Sheol. Christ had given up the ghost (or His spirit; Mat. 27:50), separating Himself from His body, and He was reckoned among the transgressors, not just bodily but spiritually as well, as well as being reckoned at some point and time with those in Paradise in Abraham’s bosom. These were the captive ones that Christ ultimately led captive to be with Him in heaven.

On the cross, Jesus entered into the experience of forsakenness on our behalf. God turned His back on Jesus as the son of man, cutting Him off from all blessing, from all protection, from all grace, and from all peace. God the Father turned His back on Jesus as the son of man, cursing Him to the pit of hell as He hung upon the cross. Here was the son of man’s “descent into hell.” It was here that the fury of God raged fully against the man-child Jesus. His scream, His cry, was the scream and cry of the damned for us. One writer online succinctly wrote: "The fact that he (Christ) cried, 'My God!' rather than the usual 'Father! (Abba)' suggests that he also suffered the loss of a sense of his own identity. The incarnation itself was sufficient to obscure the Lord's identity from the eyes of ordinary onlookers. The inability to say 'Abba!' suggests that at last the veil of (imputed) sin, ignominy and suffering was so impenetrable that his sonship was obscured even from himself: not necessarily in the sense that he doubted it but in the sense that it was not present as any consolation to his consciousness."

In both the Hebrew and the Greek, the various words used for our English word “curse” all basically have the same meaning. They denote something that is despised, something that is devoted or doomed to destruction. This is the “curse” that Jesus received from God in and upon His person through no fault of His own, before actually reversing it all as well through His own personal righteousness. Christ’s own sinlessness overrode and overcame the curse for the sins of His people. Christ’s own righteous blood shed before dying on the cross justified Him before God and for all of His people. It was a satisfaction of all satisfactions before God, both in Himself, in us, and for us.

All suffering under the moral government of God is in some sense for sin, resulting in: “Death through sin” (Rom 5:12). It is even as John Murray notes:
Death itself is the judgment of God upon sin (cf. Rom 5:12; 6:23). And Christ died for no other reason than that death is the wages of sin. But the epitome of the judgment of God upon sin is His wrath. If Jesus in our place met the whole judgment of God upon our sin, He must have endured that which constitutes the essence of this judgment. [18]
Arthur Pink likewise says here:
The curse of one hung on a tree was a symbolical representation—a Divinely-arranged tableau—of a spiritual mystery, setting forth the altogether unique and dual relationship which Christ occupied in our place. In that Christ was “made sin” for us, He was also “made a curse” for us: the latter could not be without the former. And Christ hanging upon the tree was the public testimony to God cursing Him. As to why this means and method of death was selected by God out of all others possible—poisoning, stoning, beheading, etc.,—Genesis 3 supplies the answer: “As the fatal sin which diffused the curse over the human race was connected with the forbidden ‘tree,’ God wisely ordered that the last Adam should expiate sin by being suspended on a tree: and He appointed in the law (Deut. 21:22, 23) such a symbol of the curse as reminded all men of the origin of the Divine curse on the world. He would not have the curse removed in any other way” (G. Smeaton). [19]
The Lord had told Adam that in the day that he ate of the tree, he would die, both spiritually and physically. And in like manner, the day that one hangs on a tree (after having already been put to death physically; see Duet. 21:22) they are cursed of God forever, beyond just the curse of physical death, intimating a spiritual curse afterward of some kind. And who, in their right mind, would not understand this to mean to be eternally separated from God, unless, of course, God himself should intervene? The judgment upon Adam was reciprocal upon Christ. What was good for the goose (Adam), was good for the gander (Christ). For thus it seemed good in God’s sight. The Jews, the Romans, and even Satan, meant it all for evil; but God meant it for good, to save many souls as it is to this day. In God’s economy and way of doing things, death precedes life. Thus, Christ had to die, and kill us, in order that we could rise with Him in newness of life.

By violating the Law in being suspended on a tree, through no fault of His own, Christ became technically guilty of all the Law, and bore the punishment of God’s wrath to the nth degree by becoming in His person an abhorrent curse—“made sin,” as I recall Paul saying in one place; and even becoming like “sinful flesh,” in another place. Christ’s very own person became the “object” of God’s wrath in our stead. As such, a spiritual law was set in motion (by God no less) that incurred a spiritual curse upon Christ’s entire human nature of spirit, soul and body; thus allowing God’s wrath to be poured out upon Christ to the uttermost that was owing to us, with this word “curse” implying being “cut off,” and not just being outwardly punished (or accursed) in some manner or way. Even the fact that the offerings in the OT (after having already been physically put to death) were gutted, butchered and entirely consumed by fire intimated something far more horrid after physically dying. Clearly, just physical death is not the thing that is in view here. Christ’s dealing with our sin goes much deeper than that. Francis Turretin writes: “For since fire is the symbol of Divine wrath, there is nothing to prevent this consuming of the sacrifices by fire being referred to the sense of Divine wrath which Christ endured in His soul[20] And since His children were sharers in flesh and blood, “He also in like manner partook of the same; that through death He might bring to nought him that had the power of death, that is the devil; and might deliver all them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage” (Heb. 2:14,15). Christ could merit redemption for us from the bondage of our sins, because He had already stood in a relation to us from the foundation of the world as our federal Head and Surety, as our Mediator and Substitute. And the OT priests stood in a relation to Christ in the eating of the sacrifices which typified an inward spiritual assimilation of Christ's suffering for us in spirit, soul and body.

When Christ was removed from the cross, another spiritual principle took place according to the God’s Law, where the land with its people actually became undefiled (cp. Deut. 21:23 w/Lev. 18:25). And in Christ being removed from the cross and being laid in a tomb, it too was a token that our sins had been removed as far as the east is from the west. It was a token that we were set free from our own personal defilement. Such was the case with both Christ and us, as depicted in this OT type and shadow. As our federal Head in union with us, our sin became Christ’s sin which cursed both Him and us in His federal union and identification with us as His body. It is even as Abraham told Isaac: “God has provided a lamb,” even before a lamb was ever provided, indicating a federal union with Christ and His people long before the fullness of time came to perform such a spiritual operation in us. Thus, in Christ’s spiritual and physical death to sin, it released both Him and us in our federal union with Him, not just physically, but spiritually as well, as even Rom. 6:1-10 clearly delineates to us. There was a death to death (both spiritually and physically) in the death of Christ. Would anyone dare to argue otherwise? And it is upon this death to death both physically and spiritually, that Christ was also raised first spiritually (or "quickened") from His spiritual death, before actually being raised physically as well from death. And we too are thus raised first spiritually from our former spiritual death (“quickened together with Him,” as Paul claims in Eph. 2:1-5), with us likewise to be raised physically from death someday.

In what way were we raised “spiritually” with Christ? From being formerly spiritually dead in sins and trespasses, which Christ crucified in His person, to being made alive together with Christ unto God in order to become dead to those sins and trespasses and alive unto God! Again, this is what Eph. 2:1-5 in no uncertain terms claims. Christ wasn’t only made alive physically, and we thus spiritually. Paul is saying that we were both “made alive” spiritually. And 1Pet. 3:18 and 1Tim. 3:16 likewise attest to this fact in the ASV translation, as does Rom. 8:10 with regards to us. To argue otherwise is to deny the most important and vital aspect of Christ dying for us, which is to release us internally from the power of sin and death. Of a necessity, Christ died to sin for us in His spirit, soul and body so that we could likewise die to sin in our spirit, soul and body. And all we have to do now is to “reckon” it as so in our mortal bodies (Rom. 6:11), making them our slaves (1Cor. 9:27) and not the other way around. Again, no one can deny that something deeply spiritual occurred for Christ at that moment and time on the cross. And that “something” was: “death through sin.” The wages of sin is death, not only physically but spiritually as well. Who in the OT under the Law seeing someone being “cursed of God” on a tree could possibly think otherwise? Such a person hanging on a tree incurred the full wrath of God, cursed even to hell. It was the whole enchilada. If not, then Christ would have been a redeemer of bodies only and not of souls. Fear not him who can destroy the body, but fear Him who can cast both body and soul in hell! This latter idea is what Christ came to redeem His people from. He who deeply and in an intimate way “knew” no sin (as this Greek word ginosko implies), was “made sin” for us in a deep, spiritual, and intimate way (2Cor. 5:21). And it was all done “for us” in both our spirit and in our body.

Are you getting a hold of this? Christ, as the son of man, was spiritually cursed of the Father as an actual sinner and substitute “for sin” placed upon our Surety as our Scapegoat. For so it seemed good in God’s sight. It pleased the Lord to bruise the son of man, in order that He would see His seed (or generation) and be satisfied. And what a satisfaction at that! What an atonement! What an identification! And what a blessed substitute was our Vicarious Substitute “for us” and “for sin”—and for our sin at that! By our union with Christ, we are changed into the image of Christ according to His human nature that He had before being cursed on the cross. What Christ effects in His people is in a sense a replica or reproduction of what took place with Him. How else could we be “imitators of God” (1Ths. 1:6; 2:14, KJV), as Paul claims, or even “walk as Jesus walked” (1Jhn. 2:6), as John claims, if not for the fact of us being created in God’s image and likeness as Paul also claims of us as the new man in Eph. 4:24? Christ literally took our place, in order that we might literally take His place; God regarded and treated Christ as the Sinner, so that He could regard and treat the believing sinners as Christ.

With the error of mediate imputation noted and set aside, reformed thinker John Murray had noted in his book, The Imputation of Adam’s Sin, how that a great injustice had been done by those, such as Charles Hodge, in declaring that immediate imputation is a “bare” imputation of Christ only being reckoned as “guilty” in order to satisfy the obligation of justice with none of our sins actually being placed in and upon His person, robbing us of a personal intimacy of what this actually entailed for us. Murray writes: "...the tendency to restrict his sin-bearing to the bare notion of penalty [or just guilt] impoverishes our appreciation of what his vicarious sacrifice demanded and entailed...'he bore our sins.' 'The Lord laid upon him the iniquity of us all.' He stood in the closest relation to our sins that it was possible for him to sustain without himself becoming defiled thereby."[21] As said earlier, all "guilt" reckoned or imputed to an individual(s) presupposes a sin committed of some kind. And in Murray's words, "Sin...is not that of mere reatus [or guilt] abstracted from the only proper basis of reatus, namely, sin itself.... [And it] vindicates the analysis which was characteristic of both Reformed and Lutheran theologians that reatus poenae [a guilty penalty] presupposes culpa [a crime]."[22] Contrary to Hodge, the Bible confirms this analysis as well. The obligation to satisfy justice of either being pronounced "guilty" or "not guilty" includes as its antecedent ground, either sin or righteousness; disobedience or obedience. And while I appreciate Murray’s thoughts in defiance of Charles Hodge’s position of being reckoned "guilty" for no sins committed, I also believe that a further and even greater “injustice” has been done by those (including Murray no less this time) who have undermined and under-valued immediate imputation in Christ's case by the forfeiture and denial of even the transference of another’s inherent moral qualities or attributes, which, again, is all part and parcel with the transference of either sin, or of righteousness. And Jesus being “cursed” of God, after having already become physically dead, implies even a further spiritual death (or penalty) due to sin that was to come upon Him, for us. The transference of sin, or of righteousness, to which both Murray readily admits of, is actually all part and parcel with also the transference of the inherent moral qualities or attributes which is behind sin or righteousness respectively, and is likewise all a result of us being either in Adam or in Christ and not based upon something that we have “personally” done, as mediate imputation would suggest. Murray is just one of those of whom I said earlier, who for the likes of themselves, could not bring himself to believe that our immoral qualities or attributes with all of their power and pollution were likewise transferred to Christ. Because Murray, like most, still believes we have indwelling sin. Such an idea is just too “abhorrent” or even blasphemous of imagining our Savior enduring such a degradation for us, as if it somehow "defiled" (in the words of Murray) His previous sinlessness and righteous blood shed for us. Like I said before, even I cringe at such a notion or idea. But the principle or power behind our sin is what has in fact been passed on to us, and unto Christ, in order that Christ could crucify the principle or power of sin (or our old man) in us, so that we could rise as a new man according to the principle and power behind righteousness, bearing the fruit of the Spirit and presenting the members of our bodies as instruments of righteousness. The spiritual principle or law of the Spirit of Life in Christ Jesus has set us free from the spiritual principle or law of sin and death (Rom. 8:2). Thus, the first man, Adam, in his human nature was like God and became sin in his spirit, soul and body; and we thus became like him with sin in our spirit, soul and body. The Second Adam, Jesus, in His human nature was also like God and likewise became sin in His spirit, soul and body, in order that He could reverse it all and we all become like Him in spirit, soul and body. In His eternal decrees God determined that Jesus would not remain solitary forever, but that out of a multitude of the sons of Adam, a vast host would become God’s own sons and partakers of His divine nature, being conformed to His own image and likeness according to Eph. 4:24. This great company of witnesses would become God’s sons by a new birth, by being born-again, thus becoming members of His body by the baptism of the Holy Spirit into the death, burial and resurrection of Christ.

So, based upon all that was mentioned above, Adam was imputed (or reckoned) for his own sin and fell into moral depravity; Adam's sin is imputed (or reckoned) and imparted to us through no sin of our own; and what we became in Adam was imparted and imputed (or reckoned) to Christ as an actual sinner in our stead, becoming a curse for us through no personal or inherent sin of His own; and, finally, Christ both imputes (or reckons) and imparts to us His righteousness based upon no personal righteousness of our own. All of this is the blessed doctrine of substitution and identification. Adam to us, us to Christ, and Christ back to us, gloriously restoring to us what was lost in Adam. Hallelujah! Adam the righteous one, became unrighteous, and we became unrighteous in him. Christ the righteous one, also became unrighteous, that He might overturn our unrighteousness and make us all righteous again. What our first Adam did to us, our Second Adam did even greater things for us. Adam was truly a type of Christ, with Christ even far-exceeding what Adam had done to all of us. No doubt, Christ was personally exempt from all the consequences of Adam's sin, but officially He was subject to them in His Identification with us. Sin was officially assumed by Him but not personally inherited by Him through physical birth, as He was not born through the seed of man but through a virgin who had known no man. Thus, the two-fold relation which Christ sustained in His person was personally innocent, officially guilty; in Himself without sin, yet by virtue of His identification with His people, "made sin." It is even as Arthur Pink states: "Yet it was the Sinner he assumed who was arraigned for sentencing. As Luke states: "He was [judicially] reckoned [by God] among the transgressors" (Luke 22:37). [23]

So, if Christ actually assumed our sinful fleshly human nature in His entire being in our stead, then God could justly condemn the power of our own sinful fleshly human nature in Christ for those of us who have appropriated through faith that condemnation to the sin of our old man (or the flesh), as delineated in Rom. 6:6 and Gal. 5:24. Again, this was not just true forensically for us, but experientially and practically as well. Again, if Christ was absolutely sinless in His human nature at that time on the cross (and I emphasize, “at that time”), then God could not have justly judged Him as our Substitute, let alone even reverse all that Adam had done in and to us. For many (such as Charles Hodge and all those in league with him), God was only “imputing” our sin to Christ and charging Him "guilty" for it based upon none of our sin actually being placed in and upon His person. But Christ wasn’t imputed or just constituted as sin for no sin in or upon His person, but judged as an actual substitute sinner in our stead. It is even as Paul claims: “He who knew no sin [as us sinners], was made sin [as us sinners] for us [24], so that in Him we might become the righteousness of God [or as saints]” (2Cor. 5:21; words in brackets mine). This could very well read: He who was holy, was made unholy for us, so that in Him we might become the holiness of God. Or better yet: He who knew no unrighteousness, was made unrighteousness for us, so that in Him we might become the righteousness of God. On the cross, God treated Jesus as if He lived your life so He could treat you as if you lived His life. Christ receives the heavy yoke and burden of humanity’s sin, while humanity receives the very light and easy "yoke" (if we can even call it that) of Christ’s righteousness. This is in fact what happened to Christ, and to us, by Him being our substitute and identifying with us, so that we can now identify with Him. As David Garland notes here of the words "for us" in 2Cor. 5:21: “By metonymy, using an abstract term in place of a more concrete term and by saying it was ‘for us,’ he [Paul] protects Christ’s sinlessness,”[25] just as John Murray had noted earlier where “the word ‘likeness’ guards this truth” in Rom. 8:3.

As mentioned in a footnote in passing in part two, Christ being “made” sin and us becoming righteousness in 2Cor. 5:21 (and in many other verses), in all honesty, denotes this latter idea of impartation and identification with us through a creative act of God which this Greek word for "made" (poieo) implies, and not the former of “reckoning to one’s account" or just "constituting" or regarding Christ as sin with no sin placed in or upon His person. This Greek word for “made” means: to act, to work, or to do. And when applied to God, it usually means: to act, to work, or to do something by a created act of God that brings about a complete change of someone or something. For example, in Mat. 19:4, Jesus speaks of the One who created from the beginning, made them male and female; in Eph. 2:10, we are spiritually said to be "God's workmanship created in Christ Jesus"; in Eph. 2:14, spiritually in Christ both Jews and Gentiles have been made to be one, or one new man in Christ (see also v. 15); in Eph. 3:11, it is to make known the spiritual eternal purpose which God made in Christ; in Rev. 1:6, Christ has spiritually made us kings and priests; in Rev. 5:10, Christ has spiritually made us unto God kings; in Rev. 14:7, everyone is told to worship Him who made heaven; and, finally, in Rev. 21:5, Christ says He will make all things new. All of this is a far cry from just imputing (or reckoning), constituting, regarding, or appointing which Rom. 5:19 denotes with Paul's use there of the word "made." What Christ did on the cross was a tangible physical/spiritual reality where we actually die to sin. It is not just an abstract statement of fact.

Clearly, by the definition of this word “made” in 2Cor. 5:21, Christ wasn’t just regarded or constituted as a sinner by imputation through no fault of His own personally (as true as this may be), but He is said to have actually become spiritually “made” as a sinner by identification with us as our substitute for our sin, via the impartation of our sins upon Him as noted in Leviticus 16 (and elsewhere). It is known in some Protestant circles as a "representative union" either: of sin, condemnation, and death; or of righteousness, justification, and life. And even though Christ is actually said to have been “made sin for us” (2Cor. 5:21), to have “become a curse for us” (Gal. 3:13), to have borne our sins (1Pet. 2:24), to have been sent “in the likeness of sinful flesh and for sin” (Rom. 8:3), yet we do not read that Christ himself sinned or was personally responsible for any sin of His own. He was “made” as such with our sin transferred to Him as our blessed Substitute and Identification. While the forensic view or idea of Christ is no less true and not to be diminished, the sanctification side or view of Christ is also no less true and not to be diminished as a mere “forensic” external act. In 2Cor. 5:21 (and even in Rom. 8:3), Christ is NOT constituted or just regarded as a sinner, but actually made to be as a sinner in our stead by the creative act or work of God. Christ didn’t just do something for us, He became something for us by the creative act of God, in order to crucify our old man and create us as a new man. It is even as Paul was noted earlier as saying in Ephesians 2:10, how that we are God's "workmanship" (poiema, from poieo; a thing made) created in Christ Jesus. And of necessity all of this came about by Christ also being "made sin" for us.


Click here for part four.


Footnotes: Create footnotes in addition to 24 and 25.

[1] The Atonement, p. 174.
[2] Ibid.
[3] Ibid.
[4] Redemption Accomplished and Applied, p. 201, 205.
[5] The Satisfaction of Christ, p. 36; words in brackets mine.
[6] Ibid, p. 35.
[7] Ibid, p. 47.
[7a] Some translations make it sound like the scapegoat also made atonement for sin in their translation of Lev. 16:10. But I believe the ESV, NASB, KJV, NKJV, CSB, ISV, NET Bible, NHEB, JPS Tanakh, NAS, Jubilee, ASV, Brenton Sept. Trans., ERV, Webster’s, and World English Bible all give the correct sense. The Brenton Septuagint Translation correctly translates the Greek Septuagint, ep autou, as “upon him” (or, upon himself), clearly indicating that atonement was made for the sins of the people upon the scapegoat. In verse 5 it says that both unblemished goats were designated for a sin offering, but only the goat on whom the lot fell was to be the goat “for the Lord” as the sin offering without the people’s sins placed upon it, in order to make atonement for sin. And this is clearly demonstrated for us in verses 15-17. Thus the sins of the people placed on the scapegoat were atoned for by the blood of the goat that was without sin.
[8] Institutes, book 2, pp. 446, 443, 440-441 and 447, in this order.
[9] Ibid., p. 444.
[10] Ibid., 444-445, 446.
[11] Christ—Our Substitute; sermon: 310.
[11a] Systematic Theology, vol. 3, p. 35.
[11b] Systematic Theology, vol. 2, p. 190.
[12] Institutes, book 2, p. 438f.
[13] Ibid, p. 438, 557.
[13a] The Atonement, p. 331. Words in caps for emphasis mine.
[13b] Ibid., p. 30. Emphasis mine.
[14] Message of Galatians, p. 81.
[15] Accessed online at: biblehub.com.
[16] Accessed online at: biblehub.com.
[17] Accessed online at: biblehub.com.
[18] The Atonement, p. 5. Emphasis mine.
[19] The Satisfaction of Christ, p. 52.
[20] Elenctic Theology, vol. 2, p. 355.
[21] The Imputation of Adam's Sin, p. 94.
[22] Ibid., p. 95.
[23] The Satisfaction of Christ, p. 42.
[24] The Greek huper here, translated “for us,” need not be limited just to our outward position before God on behalf of Christ as our vicarious substitute, but to our inward practice as well. This Greek preposition when used in the genitive, means: "in behalf of," "for the sake of," "in the place of,” or “instead of,” with no indication one way or the other of what Christ is doing on behalf of us, for the sake of us, in place of us, or instead of us. As the Cambridge Bible notes here in its comments under Gal. 3:13, as it relates to 2Cor. 5:21: "The great doctrine of our Blessed Lord’s vicarious sufferings and death does not rest on the narrow foundation of the exact force of a particle. It is the doctrine of the types and prophecies of the O.T. and of the teaching of our Lord Himself and His Apostles in the N. T." (biblehub.com). What Christ does “for us,” He no doubt does for us both forensically and experientially in our lives. Arguing over words such as this, and reading into them more than what is not really there (i.e., that what Christ did, He only did objectively or forensically for us), is of no benefit to the hearers (cp. 2Tim. 3:14). Huper does not determine the meaning of the context; the context determines the meaning of huper. And the context of 2Cor. 5:21 is what Christ did for us “in” His human nature, and “in” us, to be worked out in our lives. In fact, Paul just got through using it in this manner in verses 14-15, where he says: "For the love of Christ controls us, because we have concluded this: that one has died for [huper] all, therefore all have died; and he died for [huper] all, that those who live might no longer live for themselves but for him who for [huper] their sake died and was raised" (ESV). Here we see that what Christ did, He did for us internally, or spiritually, in accordance with Romans 6 where it says we have been spiritually baptized into Christ's death, so that we can now walk in newness of life. And Paul likewise says here in verse 15 that it is in order that we might no longer live for ourselves, but for Him who died for our sakes. No doubt, this is what Christ did "for us" as our substitution and identification. Even Charles Hodge, though denying all of this with regards to verse 21, admits of this concerning "huper" in verses 14-15:
He [Paul] judged that the death of Christ was the death of His people, and that the design with which He died for them was that they might live for Him. This idea is expressed in various forms in the word of God. Sometimes our Lord is said to have died, the just for the unjust, to bring us near to God, 1 Pet. 3:18 [justification]; or, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness, 1 Pet. 2:24 [sanctification]; or, to purify to Himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works, Tit. 2:14 [sanctification].... The proximate design and effect of the death of Christ is the expiation of sin and reconciliation with God, and the design and effect of reconciliation with God are devotion to His service." (1 and 2 Corinthians, 1978, p. 513; emphasis and words in brackets mine).
The KJV translates the last part of verse 14, where it says in the ESV, "therefore all have died," with the words, "then were all dead," as if indicating we were all dead in sins and trespasses and thus the reason why Christ had to die for us forensically. And as true as this may be, the words "have died" denote something altogether different. "Have died" is the translation of the Greek here that is an aorist active indicative, denoting what we have actively done at some point and time in the past, not what we were in Adam through no "active" part of our own. We were all passively made dead in Adam; whereas, here in v. 14, we have died at a certain point and time in the past when we all actively received Christ. This is what the text is saying. It is not what we were, but who we have become experientially or spiritually in Christ. Do you see that? This "active" voice in the Greek marks the difference between what the KJV says, and what other translations (such as the ESV) are correctly stating. I really like how the New Living Translation translates these verses: "Since we believe that Christ died for all, we also believe that we have all died to our old life. He died for everyone so that those who receive his new life will no longer live for themselves. Instead, they will live for Christ, who died and was raised for them." What Paul says that Christ did here isn’t an empty vicarious atonement or substitution, void of anything realized in us. The purpose of Christ being made sin for us was to not only make us whole externally before God (to justify us), but to make us whole internally as well (to sanctify us); not just to absolve us of “guilt,” but to remove the sin in us as well that produced that guilt in the first place. It is to make us “blameless” not only externally, but also internally to where we can now say with Paul: “You are witnesses, and so is God, of how holy, righteous and blameless we were among you…” (1Ths. 2:10).
[25] David Garland, The New American Commentary, 2 Corinthians (Nashville: Broadman and Holman Pub., 1999), p. 301.