Saturday, March 26, 2011

The People of the Prince, the Coming One (1 of 4)

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It is not the purpose of this study to do a comprehensive outline on the 70 weeks of Daniel. Much has already been written on both the dispensational and the non-dispensational sides of the fence. In other words, except for the cutting–off of the Messiah and the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD by Rome’s armies, either everything in this prophecy is still yet to be fulfilled by Christ and an Antichrist in a future rebuilt temple that is again to be destroyed or, has already been fulfilled through the person and work of Christ, and via the Roman armies under Titus in the desolation of Jerusalem in 70 AD. I argue for the latter, but with a very interesting and different twist to the plot. And though not a novel idea of my own—for others have contemplated the same idea—it is a “twist” that, I believe, is absolutely biblical and in keeping with the entire context of the narrative, steering us clear from any fanciful man–made theories and speculations. “Context, context, context!” someone once cried. If we would only stick to the “context” of what the main reason and focus of what this prophecy is all about, then we will not stray from the path of truth and on into error. Throughout this prophecy the main focal point and purpose is all about the Messiah, Jesus Christ, and what He was going to do as both “Prince and Savior” (cf. Acts 5:31, NIV). Not only just as a “Savior” for sins, but as both “Prince” and “Savior”; as King and as High Priest.

What is being taught today, amongst Christian believers no less, is the Jewish controversy reiterated all over again. And many Christians today have played right into their same mistake, supposing that there is still yet to be another future Jewish temple in the reoccupied city of Jerusalem, with reclaimed land promises and the re–institution of animal sacrifices (or what have you), and all in preparation for a future appearance of the Messiah in the land of Palestine. A Messiah of “second chances” no less (according to dispensationalists), because the first century Jewish Christ–rejecters rejected what Christ offered to them. This is all just simply amazing to me, seeing that many “Jews” did indeed in fact “receive” Christ after God had brought them back into the land in fulfillment of His promises to them, and then abolished the old covenant in replacement with the new covenant!

And all such similar “Judaizers,” no less, will just not stop short of trying to place Jesus on some earthly Jewish throne, in some earthly Jewish temple, and with some more Jewish carnal, earthly sacrifices; even though Christ himself affirmed that “the kingdom of God does not come with your careful observation, nor will people say, ‘Here it is,’ or ‘There it is,’ because the kingdom of God is within you” (Lke. 17:20-21). Or again, “My kingdom is not of this world. If it were, My servants would fight to prevent My arrest by the Jews. But now My kingdom is from another place…You are right in saying that I am a King. In fact, for this reason I was born, and for this I came into the world, to testify to the truth. Everyone on the side of truth listens to Me” (Jhn. 18:36-37). And all those who are of Christ's sheep, from both Jews and Gentiles, indeed are “listening” to Him. And being on “the side of truth” is not being on the side that the Jews in Christ’s day were on then, nor now. And, sadly, “dispensational” brethren and Messianic Jews have played right into the same Jewish error, teaching and believing in things that should just not be taught and believed in anymore. When Jesus said, “I am not of this world” (Jhn. 17:14) we should take Him at His word. But like Peter, many are saying, “Not so Lord!” Christ's answer: “Get thee behind me Satan, for you do not savor the things of God, but the things of men.”

And to those chief priests and teachers of the law who rejected the Messiah in the first century, He said unto them, “But I tell you, from now on [lit., from this time forward] you will see [not as they had expected to “see” Him] the Son of Man seated at the right hand of Power and coming on the clouds of heaven” (Mat. 26:64, ESV). And Peter concurred with Christ regarding His ascension to the right hand of the throne of God upon His resurrection, “Therefore let all Israel be assured of this: God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Christ” (Acts 2:36). And it was later that Peter also affirmed of Christ, “God exalted Him to His own right hand as Prince and Savior” (Acts 5:31). So Jesus is “now” (not later) both Prince (or Lord) and Anointed One (Christ); He is both Ruler and Deliverer (or Savior). And, “therefore, since we have a great High Priest who has gone through the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold firmly to the faith we profess” (Heb. 4:14) and not to another earthly, carnal one that the author of Hebrews warned of falling back into. The “shadows” are behind us, “the body” of Christ which cast those shadows is now before us (cf. Col. 2:17, GWT).

The kingdom that Jesus as the Messiah offered to everyone is the kingdom that He is now ruling and reigning over from His throne in heaven, as both King and High Priest, as both “Prince and Savior.” There is no other kingdom to come or to be offered at a later time. Christ's kingdom is now a kingdom that rules over the heavens and all the kingdoms of the earth. There are to be no “second chances” of opportunity for people to repent in some future so-called “seven year tribulation,” let alone in another era of some future time. Today is the day of salvation! At the end of this reign of Christ’s, the door of this great ark of opportunity and deliverance will be closed, and the just along with the unjust will be judged on the last resurrection day at Christ's Second Coming.

Now when Jesus told the Sanhedrin that “from now on” they would “see” Him “seated” at the right hand of “power” and “coming on the clouds” of heaven, little did they realize the apocalyptic nature and meaning of such words. This “Prince” (Jesus) was “coming” in “power” to Judge them right before their very “eyes,” in the powerful destruction of both their city and sanctuary that was due to their cruel and sinful rejection of Him and His followers. They would “see” Him coming alright as the “King” He had claimed to be, but not in the way that they had envisioned seeing Him coming. His rule and throne was to be from heaven, and His people or “clouds” of armies that He would ride upon and use as His chariots to wield the desolating sword and impending temporal judgments against these Christ–rejecters, were to be the very nations that they despised. I will elaborate more on this shortly.

Of more recent tradition, even since the days of the early 1800’s, many bible teachers have often claimed that the “prince” in Daniel 9:26 is a future antichrist, but where are they getting this from? One will search high and low in the immediate context in utter futility to find such a person. As one reads the immediate context, the only “prince” mentioned that was to come is an “Anointed One, a Prince,” i.e., Jesus Christ, the Messiah in verse 25. So what is the point of waving around one’s bible college degree after having gone to bible college, and having learned the principles hermeneutics (the science of interpreting the Scriptures), and the “contextual” method or rule of interpretation, if all we are to do at this point and venture is to cast aside this rule and no longer apply it here in Daniel’s 70 weeks prophecy? It makes no sense to me to say that the “prince” in verse 26 is not the same “Anointed One, a Prince” in verse 25. But please bear with me, there is more to what meets the eye here than just what doesn’t make “sense” to me, as we will soon just see.

Now the main focus of this entire prophecy, which no one doubts, is to lead us up to this Prince’s (or Christ's) coming, along with the six things that were to be primarily fulfilled within the 70 weeks or 490 year time frame since the beginning of a command or word from God via Cyrus, the king of Persia, for the Jews to rebuild the city (as well as the temple) as mentioned in Isaiah 45:1–5, 13; 2Chr. 36:23 and Ezra 1:1–4. And whatever else anyone might believe as to who actually gave the “command” (or lit., “a word”) to rebuild Jerusalem, the “word” of the Lord clearly tells us that this command was to issue forth from Cyrus—not by Artaxerxes, or any other. And according to Ezra, these were the very things that the Jews had exactly attempted to do based solely upon Cyrus’ command, just short of being halted by the opposition (cf. Ezra 4:1–8). And it was especially with regards to halting the rebuilding of the city (and not just the temple) that a letter was written by this same opposition to king Artaxerxes in Ezra 4:12–13, 16 (also considered by many to be king Ahasuerus or, Cambyses, the son and successor of Cyrus; see vv. 6–7). This is not the latter Artaxerxes mentioned in Nehemiah, that most commentators refer to as having given this “command.” This latter Artaxerxes just allowed it to continue under the leadership of Nehemiah, but it had already been started to be restored long before that under Ezra's leadership, until halted.

Now a biblical chronology[1], as opposed to the profane chronologies of Ptolemy that are used today and off by some 80 years, shows that from Cyrus, to the anointing and baptism of Christ, that it was exactly 483 years to the day, with the last seven years remaining for Christ to give strength to and cause to prevail a new covenant with "many" from both Jews and the Gentiles.

And just as there is no indication for us as to when the first “seven weeks” (or 49 years) ended, and the following sixty two weeks began in verse 25, so too there is no “evident” time when the last 70th week to “confirm” a covenant with “many” was actually concluded with its fulfillment. But the covenant was indeed “confirmed” and firmly established beginning with the 3½ years ministry of Christ and upon His being “cut–off,” with the remaining 3½ years continuing to confirm it with both Jews and Gentiles.

It was the “confirming” of “a covenant” made earlier with Abraham, that “in thee shall all of the families of the earth be blessed.” And the point God is making through Daniel here is not a matter of how long the covenant itself would last, but how long it was to take to actually ratify or “confirm” it, first with the Jews and, then with the Gentiles. And it wasn’t long after the early Church had established themselves, and after Saul (Paul) was converted as an apostle to the Gentiles (cf. Acts 9:15), that some three years later (Gal. 1:18) he goes to Jerusalem to confer with Peter the ministry that God had called him to with the Gentiles. And it was soon after Paul's conversion in Acts chapter nine that God brings Peter face to face with Cornelius, a Gentile, in Acts chapter ten. So clearly, within seven years, Christ’s new covenant is “confirmed” with both Jews and Gentiles and on its way to becoming a force to be reckoned with. And by the time that Christ’s Olivet prophecy concerning the “desolation” (not the “restoration”) of Jerusalem was fulfilled in 70 AD, the gospel had actually gone into all of the then known world (cf. Col. 1:6, 23).

Now any postponement of this 70th week off into our future is absolutely ludicrous and without any biblical warrant. And it is amazing to me how anyone can entertain such an idea. As Ralph Woodrow put it,
The “gap theory” is like telling a man who is about to make a journey of 70 miles that he will find the first 69 miles consecutive miles, but as he completes the 69th mile, he will find a sign telling him that the 70th or last mile is about 2,000 miles on down the road.

Or suppose two men are leaving Los Angeles to drive to Chicago. The one man asks the driver: “How far is it to Chicago?” “Seventy miles,” the driver answers. But after they drive 69 miles, they are far from Chicago. They are still in California, in fact! “Didn’t you tell me it was 70 miles from Los Angeles to Chicago?” “Well, it is 70 miles from Los Angeles to Chicago,” the driver replies, “but there is a gap, a great parenthesis, of 2,000 miles that I didn’t tell you about. You see, the speedometer is set so that it registers only the first 69 miles and then stops. When we have driven another 2,000 miles and start the final mile into Chicago, then it will start again and tick out the 70th mile. [2]
So too, according to the dispensationalists, the time clock of prophecy on the 70 weeks of Daniel “stopped” at the 69th week, and will not be re-set to countdown the remaining 70th week until sometime in our future. Where does such a crazy and convoluted idea come from? Your guess is as good as mine: Not from above! As Edward Young remarks, “since there is no gap between the 1st period (7 sevens) and the 2nd (62 sevens), it comes as somewhat of a shock to learn that such a tremendously long gap must occur between the last two sevens.”[3] Simple logic requires that the 70th week follows immediately after the 69th week, just as the 70th year of the captivity was to follow on the heels of the 69th year. If not, then neither can properly be called the 70th, can they? And with regards to the 70 weeks, there would now be many weeks between the 69th and 70th week which would roughly make it today the 284th week since the 69th (2011 AD - 26 AD of Christ‘s baptism/anointing = 1,985 years, or 283.57 weeks). Remarkable! Understood this way, it has now been roughly 353 weeks or 2,469 years since this prophecy originated with the going forth of the command in 458 BC—way beyond the 70 weeks or 490 year time frame allotted by God for its fulfillment. Now just as no one would hesitate to understand that there is no gap between the first set of 7 weeks and the second set of 62 weeks, so too no one should hesitate in understanding that there is no gap between the second set and the third set of 1 week. Any other sense with regards to all of this, is just utter nonsense!

From whence then comes this error of separation? Quite frankly, most of this error is based upon a misunderstanding of who this “prince” really is in verse 26, and who the personal, subject, pronoun “he” is that confirms a covenant with many for one week in verse 27. And even if this “prince” were not Christ, no one has any authority whatsoever to distance this “prince” from “the people” by some 2,000 years, and say “the people” of the then known Roman empire came and destroyed the city in 70 AD, but “the prince” is still yet to come in a future, revived, Roman empire. Such a contortion and distortion of the text is only a futile and desperate attempt to try and make a square peg fit into a round hole.

The Hebrew word for “confirm” here in verse 27 is, “gawbar,” and means to prevail, to make strong or strengthen; to make firm. Now some would even go so far as to say that nowhere is it stated in Scripture that Christ would come to give “strength” to such a covenant, but I beg to differ. In Hebrews 9:16-17, it says with regards to Christ giving strength to His new covenant, “In the case of a will, it is necessary to prove the death of the one who made it, because a will is in force [Gk. ischuo, lit., “strengthened”] only when somebody has died; it never takes effect while the one who made it is living.” Christ had to “die” first, or be “cut-off,” as Daniel tells us, in order to give “strength” to, and establish, the new covenant. Indeed He “confirmed” it upon His death! And it was ratified in His blood, as all "blood" covenants are (see also Mat. 26:28).

Paul similarly declared, "that the Messiah became a servant of the circumcised on behalf of God’s truth in order to confirm [Gk. bebaiosai; lit., to make sure, secure, establish and strengthen] the promises given to our ancestors, so that the Gentiles may glorify God for his mercy. As it is written, 'That is why I will praise you among the Gentiles…'" (Rom. 15:9, ISV). These are the “many” that Daniel said the Messiah came to “confirm” a covenant with.

This same word used here in Romans above is used also in Mk. 16:20 concerning the “confirming” of the Word spoken by the apostles, and, again, in Heb. 2:3, of the salvation spoken through the Lord and “confirmed” by the apostles. The noun form, bebaiosis, is used in Php. 1:7 of the “confirmation” of the gospel, and in 1Cor. 1:6 the verb form, ebebaiōthē, is again used of the testimony of Christ being “confirmed” in all of us.

In Gal. 3:17, the Greek word for “confirm,” prokekurōmenēn, is denoted by W. E. Vines as, “to confirm or ratify before…the Divine confirmation of a promise given originally to Abraham, Gen. 12, and confirmed by the vision of the furnace and torch, Gen. 15, by the birth of Isaac, Gen. 21, and by the oath of God, Gen. 22, all before the giving of the law."[4] And just previously in speaking of human covenants ratified or confirmed by men, Gal. 3:15 states, “Though it be but a man’s covenant, yet if it be confirmed [Gk., kekurōmenēn], no man cancels, or adds thereto” (AKJV). So, similarly, Paul states here that God “confirmed” a covenant with Abraham and eventually ratified it in His own blood (cf. Acts 20:28) in the sacrificial offering of His Son on the cross (cp. Gen. 22:8).

It should also be briefly noted here that it makes no difference whether it was “a” covenant, or “the” covenant mentioned here by Daniel, just as it makes no difference really whether Messiah is called “a Prince” in verse 25 or, if He is called “the” Prince in verse 26, other than the fact that the definite article does lend more weight to the idea of someone who is “known” (such as the coming of the Messiah) as opposed to someone who is not fully known to be coming. But no one should argue that just because the Messiah is not denoted as “the” Prince in verse 25, that He is not really “the” coming Prince of all princes in verse 26 that was long expected to come even before Daniel's time (for example, see also Mic. 5:2-5). To argue over little insignificant articles like this, such as “a” and “the,” is of no benefit to the hearers in determining who this Prince really is. In context, this Prince is the Messiah. This alone should settle the issue for us. But since it doesn't for many, further elaboration will be given in the foregoing pages.

Now the actual Greek word for the Hebrew verb “gawbar” (or “confirm”) that is used in the Greek Septuagint translation, is the verb “dunamosei” which is from the Greek noun “dunamis.” Similar to the Hebrew gawbar, this Greek word also denotes the active force of making strong, to confirm, or to give ability and power to something or someone.[5] In Acts 4:33, it is said that, “with great [confirming] power [dunamei] the apostles were giving testimony to the resurrection of the Lord Jesus…” Interestingly, W. E. Vine notes how that the Greek ischuo, used of the Messiah’s death above in Heb. 9:17 in order to confirm His testament or will, that it, “indicates a more forceful strength or ability than dunamai.”[6] And one can very-well see why! Christ’s death enforced the covenant in a way that made everything else that confirmed it pale in comparison.

As in English, so too in Greek all of these synonyms denote this multi-faceted idea of the confirming power and validity of what Christ did on the cross in establishing and ratifying His new covenant with us. Did the Messiah “confirm” a new covenant with all of His believers? You bet He did! In many ways, and in divers manners, our Messiah “confirmed” His gospel and new covenant in and through us. And the most powerful (ischuo) confirmation of all these was in His death as a testator of His new covenant in the shedding of His blood.

Now after all this, would anyone dare to argue that the Messiah did not confirm a covenant with many? Let all gainsayers be silenced! All I can say to all of this is that, just as with Job’s three friends, the Lord will indeed likewise “confirm” on the last and final day all those who are speaking the truth about Him, as opposed to all those who are not. And we will all one day have to give an account for all the idle words that we have spoken out of our mouths (cf. Mat. 12:36).

Now just because Daniel 9:26 says He was “cut-off” after the 69th week, doesn’t mean that He was cut-off immediately afterwards. Verse 26 says that three things are to occur “after” the completion of the 62 weeks (or the 69th week, if you add in also the first 7 weeks). The first thing that is said to happen is, that “the anointed one shall be cut off.” Secondly, that “the people…shall destroy the city and sanctuary.” And thirdly, that “the prince…shall come” in which the “people” who do the destroying are under.

What is interesting about all of this is that dispensationalists will say that the word “after” here can only mean that the Messiah is to be cut-off immediately after the 69 weeks, but the people of the Roman armies that are said to also come “after” these 69 weeks to destroy the city and sanctuary, didn’t come until 40 years later in 70 AD. Here it is clearly evident that they are not consistent with their usage of terminology. For them, the Messiah cannot be “cut-off” 3½ years later in the middle of the 70th week, it can only be immediately after, or on the heels of the 69th week; but when it comes to “the people” destroying the city and sanctuary, they now conveniently give them more space and time to fulfill that at a later date via the Roman armies. They have inadvertently tripped over their own words.

Now notice also what dispensationalists say about this “coming prince” of the people. They have determined that he is not an immediate prince of these people back in 70 AD, but a future prince, and even an antichrist, that is still yet to come sometime in our future in a revived Roman empire no less some 2,000 years later. Yep, the Roman empire is going to be revived! Of all the kingdoms of Babylon, the Media–Persian's, the Grecian's and the Roman's that the Rock, or Christ, was to dash to pieces in the inauguration of His kingdom and “sweep away as the summer chaff on the threshing floor without leaving a trace” in Daniel 2:35, of the Romans it is said by dispensationalists that they shall be revived! And this is all because, according to them, the “he” that confirms a covenant with many for one week has to be a future “prince” who of necessity must come out of a revived Roman empire, because no one (such as Titus) ever appeared to confirm such a covenant with the “many.” And since it is agreed that “the people” are Romans, it is also natural for them to suppose that the Prince is a Roman. But since Titus didn't confirm a covenant with anyone, of necessity a future Roman prince must arise from a revived Roman empire. And get this: the destruction to follow in verse 27 (and not the one in v. 26 that, according to them, happened in 70 AD) is still yet another future desolation of yet another future rebuilt temple in our time that God is supposedly prophesying about, along with reinstated animal sacrifices that this “prince” (or “antichrist”) is suppose to cause to cease after 3 ½ years.i Let me tell you, if someone can believe all that as opposed to what is being presented in this book, then they really need to have their head examined. Seriously! There is no end to what their minds will conjure up. And furthermore, God is no longer behind future rebuilt temples with animal sacrifices. According to the NT epistles, and especially in the book of Hebrews, the days of such things to be rebuilt anymore are over. God is no longer behind such “Jewish” ideologies. That old covenant with all of its “old” and antiquated promises is over. The ties that use to bind both the natural Jew and the Lord are over with! A new day with a new covenant has now dawned upon us—with better promises for both Jews and Gentiles.

Albert Barnes in his commentary on Daniel notes with regards to this Hebrew word for “after,”
The word does not mean necessarily immediately, but it denotes what is to succeed—to follow—and would be well expressed by the word “afterward:” Genesis 15:14; Genesis 23:19; Genesis 25:26, et al. See Gesenius’ Lexicon. The natural meaning here would be, that this would be the “next event” in the order of events to be reckoned; it would be that on which the prophetic eye would rest subsequent to the close of the period of sixty-two weeks. There are two circumstances in the prophecy itself which go to show that it is not meant that this would immediately follow:

(a) One is, that in the previous verse it is said that the “sixty-two weeks” would extend “unto the Messiah;” that is, either to his birth or to his manifestation as such; and it is not implied anywhere that he would be “cut off” at once on his appearing, nor is such a supposition reasonable, or one that would have been embraced by an ancient student of the prophecies;

(b) The other is, that, in the subsequent verse, it is expressly said that what he would accomplish in causing the oblation to cease would occur “in the midst of the week;” that is, of the remaining one week that would complete the seventy. This could not occur if he were to be “cut off” immediately at the close of the sixty-two weeks.

The careful student of this prophecy, therefore, would anticipate that the Messiah would appear at the close of the sixty-two weeks, and that he would continue during a part, at least, of the remaining one week before he would be cut off. This point could have been clearly made out from the prophecy before the Messiah came. [7]
German commentators, Keil and Delitzsch, also remark on this word “after,”
“After the threescore and two weeks,” i.e., in the seventieth שבוע, shall the Messiah be cut off. - From the אחרי (after) it does not with certainty follow that the “cutting off” of the Maschiach falls wholly in the beginning of the seventieth week, but only that the “cutting off” shall constitute the first great event of this week, and that those things which are mentioned in the remaining part of the verse shall then follow. The complete designation of the time of the “cutting off” can only be found from the whole contents vers. 26 and 27. [8]
Of the three things referred to above in verse 26, one of them occurred in verse 27 in the midst of the 70th week, the other two did not. But they all indeed occurred “after” the 69th week. For one to determine that Christ was immediately cut–off upon the ending of the 69th week is to read into the text something that, quite frankly, just isn’t there. It is assuming more than is necessary. On the other hand, we do know that Christ was “cut–off” or killed roughly 3½ years after His baptism and “anointing,’ and that this coincides perfectly with the one who would “after” the 69th week give strength to, and cause to “prevail,” a covenant; thus causing the sacrifices and oblations to cease 3½ years into the middle of the 70th week—at least in Christ's and God's eyes they cease to be! And the gates of hell would not “prevail” against this covenant, but this covenant would indeed “prevail” with full force and “strength” against the gates of hell.

What was to mark the beginning and the end of the first 69 weeks, or 483 years, of this 70 weeks prophecy was the going forth of “a word” to restore and to rebuild Jerusalem, unto an anointed one—i.e., the “anointing” and appearance of Jesus on the scene at John’s baptism. “After” these 69 weeks, the Messiah (or, Anointed One) was to be cut-off. And 3½ years into the 70th week marks the time when the Messiah was to actually be “cut-off.” This is important to understand and realize. Otherwise, one will read into the text a wholesale fabrication of an entirely different individual of one’s own making, which has just been the case for so many. Christ’s being “cut-off” in the midst of the week marked the time when God’s dealings with the Jews as a covenant people under the Mosaic rule and law was, as Christ put it: “finished!” As a sign of God’s displeasure and departure from the Jews as a covenantal community, God himself rent the veil of their temple, and their house was left to them “abandoned” (Mat. 23:38, ISV).

Now, in the context of what Christ came to do in this prophecy, the decree to rebuild Jerusalem, with its impending destruction on the heels of Christ’s crucifixion, are both parenthetical to this prophecy and not the main reason or purpose for it. And even though while the rebuilding of the city does actually occur within the time frame of the prophecy, the destruction of the city actually occurs outside of it. The city that Daniel talks about being rebuilt here in the days of Cyrus is the same city that was to be destroyed in 70 AD after the appearance and the rejection of the Messiah. Nothing is said in Scripture about another future temple being built after all of this (even though many, while wrong, have used these same texts to prove otherwise). God is not going to revert back to the shadows again. Nor is He going to allow anyone to go forward with such a concerted effort to rebuild the temple again. Such days of literal temples, sacrifices, and festival days are over. A new day is now upon us. And furthermore, why would God want to “anoint” yet another future, literal, earthly temple in which animal sacrifices are made in direct opposition with what He has accomplished in the person and work of His Son, who is the reality and exact representation of all those types and shadows in the first place? By the very nature of the case, the days of anointing literal temples are over with! That old priesthood is over with. It has been “changed” (cf. Heb. 7:12, 18-19). That old order has been “abandoned” for the new order. The natural came first, followed by the spiritual. The natural has been supplanted for the spiritual. And so to teach anything other than this is just contrary to sound doctrine. Quite frankly, it is the doctrine of demons. At least that is how Paul would have perceived it (cf. 1Tim. 4:1-2).

So, the only reason or explanation that can be given as to why the destruction of the city and sanctuary are mentioned after Christ is being “cut–off” by these Jews, is to show His function as the Messiah who is the Prince (or Ruler) in their mistreatment of Him, in juxtaposition to His office as the Messiah who is the High Priest and Suffering Servant. Here in this 70 weeks prophecy we see Christ both as the Suffering Servant and as the King of kings. The Suffering Messiah is also—Messiah, a Prince! The former was not what the Jews were expecting, the latter was. But like I said earlier, it was to be in a way totally unexpected of them. They were blindsided in every respect. But the Messiah (Christ) did no less come as the King of kings and as “the Prince of Life” (Acts 3:15; cf. 5:31). And “those enemies of Mine who did not want Me to be King over them,” Christ as Lord says, “bring them here and kill them in front of Me” (Lke. 19:27). This is exactly what He did to them for their mistreatment of Him and all of His prophets that He sent to them (cf. Mat. 22:7; 23:35–39; 24:15; Lke. 19:41–44). He brought “those wretches to a wretched end,” just as the Jews whom Christ was speaking to said He should do (cf. Mat. 21:40–41). For cutting Him off, He would cut them off. And as we will soon see in more vivid detail later, the “people” of this very “Prince,” King Jesus, did indeed come to destroy both city and sanctuary, along with all of its residents.

Josephus tells us that in 70 AD over a million Jews died within the city walls, and about a hundred thousand were taken away captive by the Roman armies. One was definitely taken and another left, just as Jesus had said there would be. And wherever there was a dead carcass of those Jews who were without the life of Christ, there the vultures of the Roman legions were gathered together to feed upon them with a frenzy and a voracious appetite. King Jesus had spoken, “There will be great distress in the land and wrath against this people. They will [be left to] fall by the sword and be taken as prisoners to all nations. Jerusalem will be trampled on by the Gentiles until the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled” (Lke. 21:23-24). The King of kings with His Roman legions trampled upon the city until the times of their trampling was completely fulfilled. Their house was made desolate by Christ and His desolating armies, never to be rebuilt again.

So, the six things primarily to be fulfilled in this 70 weeks prophecy were: 1) to finish (or restrain) transgression; 2) make an end of sins; 3) make reconciliation (or atonement) for iniquity; 4) bring in everlasting righteousness; 5) seal up vision and prophecy; 6) to anoint the most holy. And though dispensationalists would disagree, everyone of these things were spiritually accomplished in and through Christ upon His anointing at John’s baptism and in His work on the cross. And as said before, in God’s mind the sacrifices and oblations had ceased to have any relevance any longer. And as I said before, in God's mind they had “ceased” to be propitiatory any longer. Christ’s blood was the only thing that appeased the wrath of God from that time forward. For the followers of Christ in that day, made up of both Jews and Gentiles, this was absolutely and unequivocally realized and understood by them to be no less true. But for the natural, unbelieving Jews it would not be fully realized that it was indeed over until 40 years later in the destruction of both their city and temple. And it has been realized now for almost 2,000 years. Just like Rome, Greece, the Media-Persians, Babylon and all the other previous empires, Israel’s house and national existence as a natural theocracy under Mosaic Law and under God’s rule as His covenant people was left unto them “desolate” (Mat. 23:38; lit., “abandoned”), never to be allowed by God to be rebuilt again. That old covenant is over, never to be honored by God again. There are no more promises to be fulfilled for the Jews other than through faith in Christ. Their national existence as one nation under God is over. That they are a “nation” now is no different than any other country that is also called a “nation.” In fact, the Jews that are now there in Israel aren’t even full-blooded Jews any longer. And most of them are not even “partial” Jews, if you can even call them that. Most of them are Ashkenazim Jews who back in the tenth century were Khazars who, in seeking out a religion, had converted to Judaism, while the remainder are Sephardim Jews who migrated out of Spain. And, as such, there are no longer any genealogical records proving their ancestry. Just ask them! Even the 1973 Encyclopedia Britannica, vol. 12, p. 1, 054 states, “The Jews as a Race: The findings of physical anthropology show that, contrary to popular view, there is no Jewish race.” But regardless of all this, God’s former terms of agreement with the Jews as a “covenant” community of people has been abrogated at the cross. The days of temple building and literal animal sacrifices are over. And a new day with a new covenant from God is now upon us.

Up until only the last couple of hundred years, everyone throughout church history has pretty much maintained that these six things mentioned in Daniel 9:24 were somehow and in someway fulfilled in the person and work of Christ on the cross. Even the phrase, “the anointing of the most holy,” which is often used to describe the anointing of “things” in the OT[9], can, and has, been used to describe “persons” as being “most holy.” And so it should come as no surprise to us that this is how we are to understand it here of Christ. The Hebrew scholars Keil and Delitzsch make note of this in 1Chr. 23:13, which correctly reads in the NAS: “The sons of Amram were Aaron and Moses. And Aaron was set apart to sanctify him as most holy, he and his sons forever, to burn incense before the LORD, to minister to Him and to bless in His name forever.” So also reads the Darby translation and the Bible in Basic English. And another verse that clearly supports this idea is in Lev. 27:28 concerning vows, where it reads: “But no devoted thing that a man devotes to the LORD, of anything that he has, whether man or beast, or of his inherited field, shall be sold or redeemed; every devoted thing is most holy to the LORD” (NAS). So let no one doubt that the “most holy” being anointed in Dan. 9:24 is none other than the Messiah (whose name actually means: “anointed one”). This in itself should have alerted us to the fact of who or what is being anointed. Again, the context has proved itself once again. The most holiest of all is Jesus!

So, in getting back to this “prince” in verse 26, as noted before, there is nothing in the context that would lead us to believe that this individual is to be understood any differently than the same “prince” that is mentioned in verse 25. The “context” clearly establishes beyond all doubt that this “prince” in verse 26 is none other than the same “Prince” in verse 25. This prophecy is all about the coming of this Messiah and Prince; and the very next verse says “the people of the Prince that shall come shall destroy the city and sanctuary.” Could it be anymore clearer for us? And unless a person has a private theory or interpretation to uphold, there is no reason for us to suppose that this “prince” in verse 26 is a different “prince” than the one just immediately stated to us in verse 25. The text should just “naturally” leads us to assume that they are both one and the selfsame individual.

Now the only real reason that the “prince” in verse 26 has not been understood to be the “prince” in verse 25, is: 1) because it has been difficult for many to understand “the people” here as referring to those whom Christ would Himself use to mete out such judgments, and; 2) some have supposed that the phrase “its end will come with a flood” in v. 26, should be translated, “his end will come with a flood,” indicating that it is this prince who is to see his end by these desolating armies (similar to Julius Caesar being killed by his own people), and not referring to the end of the city and sanctuary. According to Keil and Delitzsch, there are four different explanations given for this phrase: One, is the time of the end of the days of the prince; the second, is the time of the end of the sanctuary; third, the time of the end of the city and sanctuary, and; fourthly, some choose to leave this phrase in “the neuter” as a reference to the time of the destruction itself coming to its end. There is a translation to support most of these scenarios. But most of the reliable ones such as the ASV, RSV, NRSV, KJV, NKJV, NASB, and even the more current and up-to-date literal translation of the ESV, all translate it: “the end” or “its end.” These translations are similarly followed by the AMP, NIV, TNIV, HCS, NCV, BBE, DBY, DRB, NLT, WBT, WEB, MSG, TMB, and HNV. And even Young’s Literal Translation (YLT) likewise casts in its vote in favor of “its end.” The only translations that don’t support it are God’s Word Translation, the NET Bible (a dispensational influenced translation) and the ERV. So the overwhelming majority vote is for “its end” or “the end.” Makes you wonder, doesn’t it? Anyway, more will be said on all of this later. 3) Thirdly, it is also often mistakenly understood by not a few that what occurs in the destruction of the city and sanctuary here must occur within the 70 week timeframe, especially the destruction that is spoken about in verse 27. But as has been already noted, it doesn’t. And history attests to this fact that it didn’t. So we are on solid ground. And as we have seen, this was not the main purpose of this prophecy, but was only secondary and subsequent to it. It is only stated as a natural inference and consequence of what was to happen as a result of the Jews crucifying Christ and cutting Him off, thus becoming by its very nature a parenthetical thought or pause to expound upon their own demise and cutting off (in v. 26), with the prophecy continuing with what is to occur within the 70th week, followed again by the judgments continuing to be pronounced upon the Jews in the remainder of verse 27. Repeatedly, in the Passion week, Christ connects His being “cut–off” with the destruction of the city, as both cause and effect (cf. Mat. 21:37–41; 23:37, 38; Lke. 21:20–24; 23:28–31), so with this regards Daniel is no different.

Keil and Delitzsch likewise make this observation with regards to this above idea,
If we observe that the destruction of the city and the sanctuary is so connected with the Maschiach [Anointed] that we must consider this as the immediate or first consequence of the cutting off of the Maschiach [Anointed], and that the destruction shall be brought about by a Nagid [Prince], then by Maschiach [Anointed] we can understand neither a secular prince or king nor simply a high priest, but only an anointed one who stands in such a relation to the city and sanctuary, that with his being “cut off” the city and the sanctuary lose not only their protection and their protector, but the sanctuary also loses, at the same time, its character as the sanctuary, which the Maschiach [Anointed] had given to it. This is suitable to no Jewish high priest, but only to the Messias [the Messiah] whom Jehovah anointed to be a Priest-King after the order of Melchizedek, and placed as Lord over Zion, His holy hill. We agree therefore with Haevernick, Hengstenberg, Auberlen, and Kliefoth, who regard the Maschiach [Anointed] of this verse [v. 26] as identical with the Maschiach Nagid [Anointed Prince] of Daniel 9:25, as Christ, who in the fullest sense of the word is the Anointed….In consequence of the cutting off the [Anointed] destruction falls upon the city and sanctuary. [10]
Additionally, when Jesus in His Olivet discourse talked about “the abomination of desolation spoken of by Daniel the prophet” (Mat. 24:15), He had no other abomination in mind in Daniel other than the one mentioned in our text here in Daniel chapter nine. There is no other one to speak of! And it was this one that the Jews were to see occur in 70 AD upon the heels of their “cutting off“ the Messiah. All the other abominations of desolations mentioned in Dan. 8:11-14; 11:31; 12:11 were all fulfilled under the rule of Antiochus Epiphanes. [11]

Now, Daniel 9:24-27 reads,
24 Seventy weeks are decreed upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most holy. 25 Know therefore and discern, that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the anointed one, the prince, shall be seven weeks, and threescore and two weeks: it shall be built again, with street and moat, even in troublous times. 26 And after the threescore and two weeks shall the anointed one be cut-off, and shall have nothing: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and even unto the end shall be war; desolations are determined. 27 And he shall make a firm covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease; and upon the wing of abominations’ shall come one that maketh desolate; and even unto the full end, and that determined, shall wrath be poured out upon the desolate (ASV).
I chose the American Standard Version translation because, I believe, it expresses more than any other translation the accuracy of what God is saying through the prophet Daniel here. And I highlighted a specific portion of this prophecy, because, as the title of this article indicates, this discussion will focus mainly on the phrase highlighted above, "the Prince" and “the people of the Prince that shall come.” In the title of this article, I refer to him as “the Coming One,” and there is ample reason and precedent for this, as we will soon just see.

The first and foremost purpose of this thesis is to fully understand who this “prince” is in verse 26. Secondly, who “the people” of this prince are. And, thirdly, to ascertain who the personal, singular, masculine, subject pronoun “he” is referring to in verse 27. But once we understand who this “prince” really is, all the contention about who this subject pronoun “he” is referring to in verse 27 really becomes a moot point. If we can understand who this mystery “prince” really is, then the rest of this prophecy really just becomes a walk in the park as far as I am concerned. But before we hone in on “the prince” of this verse, I feel it is necessary to first of all get this personal, subject, pronoun “he” out of the way before we begin. Click here for part two.



Footnotes:

[1] For an excellent study of a biblical chronology, I highly recommend Martin Anstey’s The Romance of Biblical Chronology and Philip Mauro’s The Wonders of Bible Chronology. The former can be found online at: http://www.preteristarchive.com/Books/1913_anstey_romance.html. The latter can be purchased still online at Amazon, or somewhere else. A “biblical” chronology places Cyrus at 458 BC, instead of Artaxerxes, and the 483 year prophecy to “anoint the most holy,” or Christ, is fixed at His baptism by John in 26 AD, which was also the 15th year of Tiberius Caesar’s reign and when Christ was at this time “about thirty”[*] (cf. Lke. 3:1, 23). So, 458 BC + 26 AD - 1 (for no year zero btwn. BC and AD) = 483 years. On the 4th Passover according to Jhn. 2:13; 5:1; 6:4 and 11:55, Christ was crucified 3½ years later in 30 AD, on a Friday, April 7th (Nisan 14), according to astronomical projections. See the two following websites for these projections: 1) The following astronomical calendar was ascertained as evidence for supporting a 31 AD crucifixion, inadvertently showing a 30 AD, Friday crucifixion on Nisan 14, Hebrew year 3790, Friday, April 5, Gregorian (Fri., April 7, Julian); http://www.judaismvschristianity.com/Passover_dates.htm; 2) In 2003, two Romanian astronomers as noted at: http://www.mirabilis.ca/archives/000736.html, came to the same calendar day and year (without any prior knowledge of these others above, that I am aware of), and determined that there were only two possible years that could work for a “Friday” crucifixion: 30 AD and 33 AD. Any other year is either too early or too late.

Clearly, a lot more could be said at this point concerning all of this, but time and space just will not permit me to do this right now. Suffice it to say for now, Anstey’s and Mauro’s books give someone plenty to digest and get started down this long and arduous road of trying to understand all of this. There is even a Hebrew calendar converter online that establishes “Wednesday” as a viable day in 30 A.D., and it is only one’s analysis of many other pertinent passages in the Scriptures that can help one to conclude whether Christ was crucified on a “Wednesday” or “Friday.” Many dispensationalists see it as “Thursday,” in accordance with Sir Robert Anderson’s computations. But he was so off in his analysis of everything that it isn’t even funny. My readers can refer to his computational errors at the bottom right column of my blog under my “favorite websites.”

[*] History tells us that Herod died 4 BC, one year after Christ must have been born most likely in 5 BC. Now from 5 BC to 26 AD (minus 1 for going from BC to AD) = 30 years of age.

[2] Great Prophecies of the Bible, p. 131.
[3] A Commentary on Daniel, p. 214.
[4] Vine’s Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words, p. 226.
[5] Ibid. All these meanings (including “confirm”) are given by Vine’s with regards to the variants of the verbs used for dunamis. See under “ability,” p. 12. To “confirm” just simply means: “to establish…validate…make firm…strengthen” (http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/confirm).
[6] Ibid., under “ability” on p. 12.
[7] Notes on Daniel taken from online at: http://bible.cc/daniel/9-26.htm.
[8] The Book of Daniel, p.359.
[9] “The most holy.” Heb. qodesh qodashim, “something most holy,” or, “someone most holy.” The Hebrew phrase is also applied to the altar (Ex. 29:37; 40:10), other vessels and furniture pertaining to the tabernacle (Ex. 30:29), the holy perfume (Ex. 30:36), specified meat offerings (Lev. 2:3,10; 6:17; 10:12), trespass offerings (Lev. 7:1,6), the shewbread (Lev. 24:5-9), the holy district (Num. 18:10; Eze. 43:12), and even the most holy place of the sanctuary (Ex. 26:33,34).
[10] Ibid., pp. 360 and 362. Words in brackets mine for clarity.
[11] See Sam Storm’s excellent commentary on all of this at: http://www.enjoyinggodministries.com/article/112-1213/. Also read Albert Barnes’ commentary on Daniel for a more fuller explanation. I too wrote a commentary on these passages of Scripture, similar to the ideas presented above by Storms and Barnes, but time and space will not permit me to discuss all that here. Maybe one of these days I will post those comments also. I would also suggest reading I and II Maccabees and the recordings of Josephus on Antiochus Epiphanes to see how this person well fits the descriptions given by Daniel, especially in v. 46 where it is said of him “pitching his tents between the seas at the beautiful holy mountain.” Before his death in Persia, his troops had literally pitched their “tents” in Emmaus, between the Dead Sea and the Mediterranean Sea, in preparation for attacking Israel. Antiochus died in Persia before returning to wage war, while his troops were circumvented by the Maccabees. While Antiochus was in Israel, he had possession of Zion, the temple, and all of Jerusalem; even sacrificing a pig on the brazen altar in defiance of Israel’s God. This abomination of desolation by him went on for approximately 3½ years, according to Josephus (Wars, 1.1.1).

The People of the Prince, the Coming One (2 of 4)

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The Personal, Singular, Masculine, Subject Pronoun “He” in Verse 27

Who is this person referred to by this personal, masculine, subject pronoun “he” in verse 27? John Walvoord (a dispensationalist) believes that understanding who this person is to be “the key to the interpretation of the passage.”[1] For him (and others who believe as he does), it is the Achilles’ heel[2] to prove a weakness in the theory that the personal pronoun “he” refers to the Messiah (or Christ). On the contrary, by their overly simplistic and incorrect analysis of the grammar, as we shall soon just see, this Achilles’ heel actually turns against them in favor of our position; exposing them for their own weakness, not ours.

One can only imagine where such a doctrine comes from that tries to take the main focus and attention of what this glorious prophecy is all about concerning the work of Christ, or the Messiah, and redirect (or I should say, “misdirect”) our attention upon some other individual, and no less an Antichrist of one’s own making. This persuasion comes not from above, brethren. It is the sleight-of-hand and working of Satan.

Talk about there being many "false prophets" and “antichrists,” this teaching personifies this idea. False Christ’s and false prophets were to be everywhere in the apostles’ days, and this is no less true in the twisting and the manipulation of these verses in our day. This very “spirit” of “antichrist” has infiltrated and permeated the very teachings and writings of God. Arthur Pink has said, “Almost all doctrinal error is, really, Truth perverted. Truth wrongly divided, Truth disproportionately held and taught.”[3] No doubt this statement of his could not be more true in this case that is now being presented before us.

As for me, I am not that overly concerned about who the pronoun “he” refers to in Dan. 9:27, because as far as I am concerned, “the prince” in verse 26 (and according to the context) is also “the prince” in verse 25, i.e., Jesus the Messiah. My real concern in all of this is greatly due to the overwhelming cloud of false witnesses who are attempting to chide and belittle those of us who are giving a place to the Savior that they just will not give to Him, which, in this case, is being both Prince and Savior; both Judge and Suffering Servant; both King of kings and High Priest. Both of these aspects of the Messiah’s ministry are seen in this 70 weeks prophecy of Daniel. And they have both been gravely overlooked, and belittled.

That “Messiah the Prince” is the subject throughout this prophecy in Dan. 9:24–27, there can be no denying. And once we understand this, like I said before, trying to understand who this mystery person “he” is in verse 27 becomes a moot point. Because whether the subject pronoun “he” is to be understood of the “prince” in the phrase “the people of the prince,” or with the more distant antecedent noun “Messiah” (or “Anointed One”) who is cut–off, doesn’t really matter; because both expressions refer to the Messiah (or Christ). And even if one were to try and make a case that the “the prince” in verse 26 is an Antichrist, the English third person, masculine, singular, subject pronoun “he” in verse 27, who confirms a covenant with many for one week, is directly linked to the more antecedent masculine, singular, subject noun “Messiah” in verse 26, and not to the “prince” mentioned in this same verse at all, because “the prince” is the object noun in that sentence.

Consider this fact that “of the Prince” in verse 26 is a prepositional phrase and “Prince” is the object of the people. And according to English grammar, “the object is part of the activity, but does not do the activity”;[4] it is “the people” as the subject in this sentence who are actually doing the activity of destroying for the Ruler (with “of” denoting a preposition of possession), which no one who understands grammar denies.

Additionally, a prepositional phrase “will never contain the subject of a sentence.”[5] And since “the people” as the subject do not agree in person, number, or gender with the subject pronoun “he” in verse 27, then what is called “a more distant antecedent” subject noun is to be sought after. And as the case may be, that a more distant antecedent subject noun is the “Messiah” who is cut-off in verse 26, and not the “Prince” at all. All this is basic English grammar 101.

In fact, dispensationalist Robert Culver, whom I refer to a little bit later in this discussion, is noted as saying, “If the pronoun “he” were present in the Hebrew, a case might possibly be made for the introduction of an entirely new personality into the story at this point.”[6] What? I am flabbergasted! Why do you think all the translators translated it in our English translations with our English pronoun “he”? It is because they all unanimously understood that this third person, sing., masc., Hebrew verb for “confirm,” as with all verbs, must have a subject from which this action operates. And since it is in the masculine, they have determined to use a pronoun as the “subject” or noun of the sentence here that only makes sense in English: it is the third person,[7] sing., masc., pers., subject pronoun “he.”

And so who could possibly be this "new personality" in the previous verse who is linked to “he” that confirms a covenant” in verse 27? A subject noun of course that agrees with this subject pronoun, whoever that person may be! It can’t be “the Ruler,” who is the object of the sentence, for that would require an “object” pronoun such as “him.” And for the translators to have translated it as, “him shall confirm a covenant,” not only does this not denote a subject for the verb “confirm” (because it’s an “object” pronoun), but it also just doesn’t make for good English. And neither can it be “the people” who are the subject in that sentence, for then that would require the personal, subject, pronoun “they.” But, of course, “they” is plural and neither masculine, so that wouldn’t work either. And so as it turns out, it just so happens that “the Messiah” is the nearest antecedent subject noun that agrees with this subject pronoun “he.”

As said before, all of our current English translations have given this third person, singular, masculine, Hebrew verb “confirm” a translation with the English, personal, subject pronoun “he.” And both English and Hebrew grammar rules mandate that that both this “subject” pronoun and “subject” verb agree with their respective “subject” noun in a sentence. Not just any noun, but a “subject” noun. Object pronouns agree with object nouns, subject pronouns agree with subject nouns. It can’t get anymore clearer than this!

And so this is where a grave error has occurred when it is stated by not a few that the nearest noun that agrees in gender and number is to be understood as the antecedent noun of either the Hebrew verb “confirm” or of the English subject pronoun “he.” “Confirm” is not an object verb that belongs to an object noun, but a subject verb that belongs to a subject noun, and thus the subject pronoun “he” also becomes the subject noun in this particular sentence, with this subject pronoun also having as its antecedent an individual in the context that agrees in case, person, number and gender[8] in order to identify who this individual is. Again, not a noun in the objective case, but a noun in the subjective case. “Prince,” “people,” and “Messiah” are all nouns, but only “people” and “Messiah” are in the subjective case and subject nouns. Therefore, only “Messiah” is the proper “fit” as “he” who confirms a covenant with many.

Many who have a working knowledge of English grammar have come to realize this with regards to these verses here. And it is only those who do not have a proper understanding of how English grammar works who have tried to make the personal pronoun “he” refer to just any “noun” in the previous sentence. As all this now begins to make more sense, you would think this would settle the issue once and for all, but, unfortunately, it hasn’t. So let’s embark on all of this a little further in this study.

Now none of this was to say that “the prince” and “the Messiah” in verse 26 are not one and the selfsame individual (because they are as far as I am concerned), but only that the grammar in and of itself confirms the fact that “he” who confirms the covenant with many for one week in verse 27, is referring to none other than the subject noun “Messiah” (or “anointed one”) in the former part of verse 26, and not to the object noun “prince” in the latter part of the verse. And rightly so, because the work of “he that confirms a covenant” is the work of Messiah as High Priest who was “cut-off,” and not the work of Messiah as Ruler or Prince. To be construed otherwise, would be out of character in attempting to link Christ’s atoning work with His Kingly judgmental work. Jesus is anointed for both offices, but each have their own separate and distinct functions. Additionally, for Christ as the “Prince” in verse 26 to be the “object” of the sentence here makes all the more sense now when we understand, as stated earlier, that “the object is part of the activity” in bringing desolations upon ungodly nations, “but does not do the activity” himself. By the very nature of the case, Messiah as Prince had to be noted here as the “object” of “the people” who are the subject here, because He isn’t the one who is actually doing the “destroying.” The people do that, as all subject nouns in a sentence are suppose to do. Much more will be cited to substantiate all of this later, but first of all, I would like to begin with the comments of some others, such as that of Ralph Woodrow, who states nothing new other than to substantiate what has already been stated,
We know that the pronoun “he” is not to be connected with the word “prince” in the expression “the people of the prince”, for the word prince is here the object of the modifying clause “of the prince.” A pronoun cannot properly have as its antecedent the object of a modifying clause. This point should be carefully noted. [9]
As the Suffering Servant and High Priest for His people, in context, Christ (or the Messiah) as the subject of "he" is the only one who could confirm a covenant with many and cause both sacrifices and oblations to cease. It wasn’t in His right to do this as “King,” but only as a High Priest. Even as the Lord through the prophet Isaiah has said, “I will give thee for a covenant of the people” (Isa 42:6). And this is likely all the more reason why “he” that was to confirm a covenant, is not immediately connected with He who was to come as the Prince and Judge of Israel. Christ’s ministry as the Judge, King or Prince here was parenthetical to His more predominant and important work here as the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and for which this prophecy is mainly all about.

Dispensationalist Thomas Ice mistakenly begs to differ with regards to who this personal pronoun “he” refers to,
Right off the bat, the first question that arises in verse 27 is to whom does the pronoun “he” refer to? I believe that “he” must refer to “the prince who is to come” in verse 26. However, opponents of literal interpretation disagree.[10] 
First of all, being an “opponent” of Ice's “literal interpretation” of Scripture has nothing to do with the case at hand. Being “literal” with the present texts in Daniel is what this book is all about, using both context and the rules of grammar to prove my point. It is Ice who has abandoned the “literal” for his fanciful and very highly speculative theories, throwing context and grammar completely out the window and making up his own rules along the way. Regardless, Preterist, Dr. Kenneth Gentry (an opponent of Ice's overly literal hermenuetic), writes:
The indefinite pronoun “he” does not refer back to “the prince who is to come” of verse 26. (Daniel's Seventy Weeks, p. 35). 
Fellow preterist, Gary DeMar, likewise insists:
It is Jesus who “will make a firm covenant with the many,” not the antichrist.[11] 
And so Ice concludes,
Yet, such an errant interpretation [of Gentry and DeMar] violates the grammar and syntax of the Hebrew text. In Hebrew grammar, as with most languages, a pronoun would refer to the nearest antecedent, unless there was a contextual reason to think otherwise. In this instance, the nearest antecedent in agreement with “he” is “the prince who is to come” in verse 26. This is recognized by a majority of scholars, including a number of amillennialists such as Kiel and Leupold. Only an a priori theological bias could lead a trained interpreter of Scripture to any other conclusion. 
Robert Culver, in tandem with Ice, goes on to also explain his so-called correct meaning of the text as follows:
The ordinary rules of grammar establish that the leading actor of this verse is the Antichrist, the great evil man of the end time. . . . If the pronoun “he” were present in the Hebrew, a case might possibly be made for the introduction of an entirely new personality into the story at this point. However, there is no pronoun; only the third masculine singular form of the verb indicates that an antecedent is to be sought, and that of necessity in the preceding context.[12] Usually, the last preceding noun that agrees in gender and number and agrees with the sense is the antecedent. This is unquestionably . . . “the coming prince” of verse 26. He is a “coming” prince, that is, one whom the reader would already know as a prince to come, because he is the same as the ‘little horn’ on the fourth beast of chapter seven.[13]
But Culver does not adequately state his case. Oswald T. Allis disagrees with Culver’s reckless analysis, and reveals where his understanding of grammar is gravely lacking.

Allis writes,
It is argued that “prince” is the subject of the verb “confirm” because it is nearer to it than is the word “anointed (one).” But this argument is more than offset by the fact that the subject of the verb “destroy” is not “prince” but “people” (“and the people of the prince, the coming one, shall destroy”). If the nearest subject must be regarded as the subject of the verb “confirm,” it should be “people” not “prince.” [14]
As Allis points out, if one were to take Ice and Culver's reasoning on linking the Hebrew word for the verb “confirm” with the “prince” and not the “Messiah,” then by the same reasoning the Hebrew verb for “destroy” should also be linked with the closest antecedent “the prince” and not “the people.” But it can’t! Because according to grammar, it is “the people” who do the actual destroying, not “the prince.” And as you will soon see in just a little bit, even Ice understood that much. Conveniently now following the proper rules of grammar, Ice too understood that the verb “destroy” should be linked not to the closest antecedent which is “the prince,” but to the more distant antecedent subject noun of “the people.”

And furthermore, as Allis pointed out above, if the nearest subject in the Hebrew is “the people” (which he affirms that it is), then the verb “confirm” would have to refer to “the people” doing the confirming and not “the prince” at all, because “the prince” is not the subject of that sentence, “the people” are.

The subject of the masculine verb “confirm” is not “the prince,” because “the prince” is not the subject, but the object; whereas “the people” are the subject. And since the plural “the people” cannot be the antecedent subject noun, then a more distant antecedent subject noun is to be sought after. And the English grammatical construction in all of the accepted English translations affirm this construction of the Hebrew text, appointing a singular, masculine, personal, subject pronoun “he” that is to agree with its nearest antecedent subject noun in the sentence, and not just the nearest noun, such as “the prince.” Additionally, the “Anointed One” (or Messiah) is also the closest matching subject noun of the singular, masculine Hebrew subject verb “confirm.”

And also notice how Robert Culver forgot to recall the fact that this Hebrew verb is in the “third” person. He skips right by that and says that the verb must only match in “gender and number,” which is the same mistake that all of these guys are guilty of. In fact, all of these individuals even forget to note the case of this Hebrew verb of whether or not it is in the subjective mood, objective mood or, whatever.

As you recall, since this Hebrew verb “confirm” is a subject verb, and in the “third masculine singular form,” as Culver states, then it stands to reason that the only English pronoun that fits with it is the third person, masculine, singular, subject pronoun “he.” And the subject noun that can only properly identify with this subject pronoun "he" and the subject Hebrew verb "confirm," is the Messiah (or Anointed One), and not the object noun of “the Prince.” And as stated earlier, if “the Prince” were the antecedent, then this would require an object pronoun “him” to make it fit with “the Prince,” rather than using the subject pronoun “he.” Again, object pronouns go with object nouns, and subject pronouns go with subject pronouns. End of story!

The analysis of the Hebrew text above by Oswald T. Allis in showing that the “subject” of the verb “confirm” is not to be construed as of “the prince” affirms the grammatical construction of the English texts which is assuredly “as with most languages,” and not “as with most languages” as Thomas Ice had earlier misled us to believe. Ice had also stated according to his analysis and conclusions of the text that it “is recognized by a majority of scholars, including a number of amillennialists such as Kiel and Leupold.”[15] Is this statement of his true? Well, yes and no with some further explaining to do.

I have the commentaries on Daniel from both Keil and Leupold, and while both might agree with Ice that “he” refers to Antichrist, only Keil, not Leupold, gives any statements based upon any grammatical considerations whatsoever. We will discuss these “considerations” of Keil’s shortly. But for Thomas Ice to use these two gentlemen under the false premise that they both support the reasons for how he came to his own conclusions based upon Hebrew grammar is a little bit misleading. Keil never says, as Ice maintains, that “a pronoun would refer to the nearest antecedent,” as meaning just any antecedent. He too realized that the verb “he will confirm” had to have as its antecedent a “subject” noun, and so Keil conveniently creates one as we will soon just see, knocking the prince out of his rightful place as the “object” of the sentence and creatively manipulating the text to make him the "subject."

Dispensationalists, on the other hand, unlike Keil, say it can just refer to any closest masculine, singular noun, regardless of whether it is the subject in the sentence, or not. And so this is the difference that is to be noted between how Keil came to his conclusions and how Ice and all dispensationalists come to theirs. They both come to the same conclusions, but for two entirely different reasons.

And furthermore, if what Ice means by “a majority of scholars” is to be understood by such statements as the likes of those of John MacArthur (as I note a little later), then this can hardly be scholarly. Don’t get me wrong, there is much to admire in John MacArthur as a thinker and a theologian, but such “scholars” as these have erred when trying to match subjects with verbs; and subject pronouns with their respective subject nouns.

As noted earlier, the Hebrew verb "confirm" must agree with a subject noun and not just “the last preceding noun that agrees in gender and number,” as Culver, has correctly stated in opposition to Ice though. Such individuals as these men also forget to note that the case and person is to be considered in all of this, which is extremely important in linking pronouns with their antecedent nouns. And so the English translations using the personal subject pronoun “he” substantiate this fact. Again, just because “prince” is a noun (and an object can be a noun), this doesn’t make it the noun that is the antecedent to this Hebrew verb “confirm.” As Allis contended above, the antecedent noun in the Hebrew can only be a subject noun in the subjective case. And the person for such a subject can only be the pronoun “he” that accommodates this case, not “him” or “they”; it also being in the subjective case. And the person for such a subject can only be understood by the personal pronoun “he” that accommodates this case, not “him” or “they.”

I am very glad that Ice inserted the remarks of Robert Culver that it is “usually, the last preceding noun,” along with his own words, “unless there was a contextual reason to think otherwise.” This indicates that at least these men both understood that it is possible for the verb to have a more distant antecedent noun than the one immediately before it. This affirmation, in and of itself, is very telling indeed. And as English grammar, Allis, Edward Young (as we will soon see below), and as “most languages” truly and accurately reveal, this is most assuredly to be the exact nature of the case. It is not what Ice or what other self-acclaimed “scholars” would have us believe.

John MacArthur, in tandem with Ice, makes mention of this pronoun as having to agree with its closest antecedent, and so also mistakenly with Ice says that “he” refers to “the prince” in the previous verse. He likewise writes:
...who’s “he”? The prince that shall come, the Antichrist, that’s the proper antecedent for “He.” [16]
Oh really? As you will have noticed, I said MacArthur had “mistakenly” made the same error along with Thomas Ice, because as has been already noted, “the prince” is not the subject of this verse, “the people” are. And as has been already noted, the “prince” is the object in that verse. Any good commentary or book that has studied this subject of Daniel’s Seventieth Week as being fulfilled in the person and work of Christ, has noted these rules of correct English (and even Hebrew) grammar to buttress the fact that it is the Messiah that we are talking about here who confirms or gives strength to this covenant with many, not “the Prince.” And definitely not some future antichrist! What rightfully belongs to Christ, has ironically and mistakenly been pushed off onto us as some Antichrist. If this is not the case, then all the English translations are grammatically misleading us and we would have no sense of what the personal pronoun “he” is really referring to. Why insert one, if one isn’t to be understood in the translation of the Hebrew text? On the contrary, they all thought it grammatically proper to translate this Hebrew verb this way because this is what the text is saying as far as they are concerned. There is no other way to translate it. This Hebrew third person, masculine, singular subject verb is to have a subject noun that does the confirming and the third person, masculine, singular, subject pronoun “he” is the only thing that fits this, serving as both the subject in its own sentence and as a subject pronoun that refers to the subject noun of the Messiah!

Now the Septuagint translation (along with some more recent commentators) omits the personal pronoun “he,” and just translates it, “and one week shall establish the covenant with many.” But without the personal pronoun “he,” how are we to know “who” or “what” establishes the covenant?

As Albert Barnes notes in his commentary,
It seems to me that it is an unnatural construction to make the word “week” the nominative to the verb, and that the more obvious interpretation is to refer it to some person to whom the whole subject relates. It is not usual to represent time as an agent in accomplishing a work. In poetic and metaphorical language, indeed, we personate time as cutting down men, as a destroyer, &e., but this usage would not justify the expression that "time would confirm a covenant with many." That is, evidently, the work of a conscious, intelligent agent. [17]
The Hebrew “third, masculine, singular” form of the verb “confirm” lets us know that it is an individual who in fact confirms the covenant, and not the “one week” itself which confirms it. Keil and Delitzsch remark on the untenable nature of this idea also in their commentary, and so I would defer all of my readers to them on their lengthy discussion of all this.

Now dispensationalist, John F. Walvoord, makes his mark with regards to all of this,
Who makes the covenant for one week?…In verse 27 it is revealed: “And he shall make a firm covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease; and upon the wing of abominations shall come one that maketh desolate; and even unto the full end, and that determined, shall wrath be poured out upon the desolate.” It is normal exegesis for a pronoun to claim as its antecedent the nearest noun with which it could be identified. The nearest antecedent in this case is the “prince that shall come.” This could not be Titus [the Prince of the Roman people who destroyed Jerusalem in 70 A.D.] for he did not make such a covenant… [18]
As noted earlier, John Walvoord had stated that, “The determination of the antecedent of he in verse 27 is “the key to the interpretation of the passage.”[19] He goes on to say,
If the normal rule be followed that the antecedent is the nearest preceding possibility, it would go back to the prince that shall come of verse 26. This is the normal premillennial interpretation which postulates that the reference is to a future prince who may be identified with the Antichrist who will appear at the end of the inter-advent age [during a seven-year tribulation] just before the second coming of Christ….Under these circumstances, the normal antecedent of he is the prince that shall come, who is not to be identified with Titus, but rather with a future enemy of the people of Israel. [20]
First of all, this is not the “normal premillennial interpretation.” George Eldon Ladd, a historic premillennialist (and not a dispensationalist), sure didn’t think so. He saw the Seventy Weeks of Daniel as all already fulfilled in the person and work of Christ on the cross. And secondly, the “normal antecedent of he,” as we have already assessed, is not “the prince that shall come.” It just isn’t that simple! Clearly, Walvoord is taking a very uninformed and simplistic approach to the rules of grammar here. He “simply” states, “a pronoun is to have as its antecedent a previous noun.” He is just parroting what everyone else in his camp is saying; or, maybe it is they who are all “parroting” him, I don‘t know. But they all seem to be blindly following the same lead. Deception has this way upon people. But as already noted above, one cannot just arbitrarily match this subject pronoun “he” with just any previous noun. [21]

With English personal pronouns there are three forms: object, possessive, and subject. A website online notes here on pronouns:
Generally (but not always) pronouns stand for (pro + noun) or refer to a noun, an individual or individuals or thing or things (the pronoun’s antecedent) whose identity is made clear earlier in the text. For instance, we are bewildered by writers who claim something like:
  • They say that eating beef is bad for you. 
  • They is a pronoun referring to someone, but who are they? Cows? Whom do they represent? Sloppy use of pronouns is unfair. 
Not all pronouns will refer to an antecedent, however.
  • Everyone here earns over a thousand dollars a day. 
  • The word 'everyone' has no antecedent.[22]
As was said, in English there are three forms of personal pronouns: object, possessive, and subject pronouns. In the case before us here in Daniel, like the first example on pronouns listed above, we have the pronoun “he” which, in and by itself, is unidentifiable. But we know that according to English grammar that this is a third person, masculine, singular, personal, “subject” pronoun. Thus we have the person, gender, number, and case. This is the only identifier of who this pronoun can undeniably be referring to. As said before, the noun “prince” in all the English translations here is the object of the sentence, yet the pronoun “he” is a subject pronoun, and so “a subject pronoun” cannot have as its antecedent “the object,” or “the prince” of the sentence. This would require an object pronoun. And since the personal pronoun has to agree in case, number, person, and gender with its antecedent, it cannot agree with the subject “the people” either (which is no less a subject noun), for that would require the subject plural pronoun “them,” “they,” or “theirs.” Therefore, the only thing left for the personal pronoun “he” to refer to can only be by the very nature of the case, the Messiah.

Walvoord had also stated,
A second view is that he refers to Christ. This is supported by Edward Young and Philip Mauro. Mauro states,
If we take the pronoun “He” as relating to “the Messiah” mentioned in the preceding verse, then we find in the New Testament Scriptures a perfect fulfillment of the passage, and a fulfillment, moreover, which is set forth in the most conspicuous way. That pronoun must, in our opinion, be taken as referring to Christ, because (a) the prophecy is all about Christ, and this is the climax of it; (b) Titus did not make any covenant with the Jews; (c) there is not a word in Scripture about any future “prince” making a covenant with them. [23]
Actually, dispensationalists have to create a future covenant made with the Jews by a future Antichrist during a seven–year tribulation, based strictly upon these verses here in Daniel alone. And many of them even affirm no less that the covenant God promised in the future through the prophet Jeremiah in chapter 31:31, and reiterated in Hebrews chapter 8, is not our new covenant at all that God through Christ has made with His Church, but another new covenant that God is to make with the Jews in the future during the millennium. I kid you not! Again, what rightfully belongs to us, the Church, doesn’t, but belongs only to natural Israel in the future apart from the Church. Really, can anyone take these guys seriously? There is to be new covenants with Israel, new temples, newly reinstated animal sacrifices, with newly reinstated literal circumcision, along with the return of the Sabbath and all the festivals, and even the reinstating of the Levitical priesthood―and all according to a literal application and understanding of Ezekiel’s vision of the temple, etc., in chapters 40–48. This is all a type and shadow of God's temple, the Church, who has rivers of living water flowing out of her, and not out of another future rebuilt literal earthly temple! What’s next for these men to say? There are no limits to where these false prophets and false teachers will take us. Was I so wrong earlier in calling them “similar Judaizers”? You tell me! And many of the men who teach these things are so–called modern day Messianic Jews who have supposedly converted to Christ and who have brought their Judaistic teachings and beliefs into the Church; with Chuck Messler and Dr. Arnold Fruchtenbaum being just a couple of them, to name a few.

With all of these thoughts behind us, let us now see what the German Hebrew scholars Keil and Delitzsch have to say in accordance with Thomas Ice’s assertions of what he said they seemingly stated opposition to those of their day who did regard the Messiah in the first part of verse 26 as the antecedent subject noun to “he” who confirms a covenant with many in verse 27:
The reasons which Hengstenberg adduces in support of his view that the Messias is the subject, are destitute of validity. The assertion that the Messias is the chief person [or the subject] spoken of in the whole of this passage, rests on the supposition, already proved to be untenable, that the prince who was to come (ver. 26) was the instrument of the Anointed,[24] and on the passages in Isaiah 53:11 and Isaiah 42:6, which are not parallel to that under consideration. The connection much more indicates that Nagid [Prince] is the subject to הגבּיר [he will confirm], since the prince who was to come is named last [or is nearest to this verb “confirm”] and is also the subject in the suffix of קצּו (his end [25]), the last clause of ver. 26 having only the significance of an explanatory subordinate clause. Also “the taking away of the daily sacrifice combines itself in a natural way with the destruction (ver. 26) of the city and the temple brought about by the הבּא נגיד;” [the coming prince]—further, “he who here is represented as ‘causing the sacrifice and oblation to cease’ is obviously identical with him who changes (Daniel 7:25) the times and usages of worship (more correctly: times and law)” (Kran.). “The reference of הגבּיר [he will confirm] to the ungodly leader of an army, is therefore according to the context and the parallel passages of this book which have been mentioned, as well as in harmony with the natural grammatical arrangement of the passage,” and it gives also a congruous [or appropriate] sense, although by the Nagid [Prince] Titus cannot naturally be understood. [26]
Much has been stated here by Keil, and I suggest that one read and reread what he is stating in order to accurately ascertain what it is he is really talking about, as I have belabored to do, and with what I believe is to be with much success. So let‘s get started. Words in brackets have been added in Keil's previous comments for clarity of meaning and in the understanding of certain Hebrew words, with italics and bold being added for emphasis on the pertinent and salient points that have to do with this study at hand. I would also suggest reading my embedded endnotes for some further elaboration on some of the details that Keil talks about to gain even further insight.

Edward Young, a non-dispensationalist, and one who is in the same league with Keil as far as having a working knowledge of the Hebrew language is concerned, in his commentary on Daniel, disagrees with the comments of the likes of those such as of Keil,
To construe “prince” as subject, does not appear to be the most natural reading, for the word [prince] occupies only a subordinate position even in verse 26, where it is not even the subject of the sentence. The city and sanctuary are to be destroyed, not by a prince, but by the people of that prince. The people are in a more prominent position than is the prince. Furthermore, the phrase, ‘and its end’ [“his end,” as erroneously deduced by Keil] in verse 26 need not refer to the prince but more likely to the end of the destruction as such.[27] The phrase of the prince in vs. 26 is in such a subordinate position that it is extremely unlikely that we are to regard it as antecedent of “he will confirm” (p. 208).
I would like to also further state that it is more than just “extremely unlikely,” it is utterly impossible. Young is being too kind for words here. For even Young notes that “the prince” in verse 26, “is not even the subject of the sentence.” And as one can very well see, you cannot just arbitrarily link the “he will confirm” with just any previous antecedent noun, unless, of course, you believe like Keil, that this “prince” in verse 26 is the subject. And Keil manages to finagle all of this with such a sleight-of-hand by construing the English translation “its end” in the same verse as “his end” ("the end," in some translations) in verse 26 here as “his end,” then this conveniently makes “the prince” here an antecedent “subject” noun as far as he is concerned. And so if the Hebrew suffix “kate” here is “his end,” then the phrase “he will confirm,” which follows, naturally now also refers to this newly created subject, or “prince,” and not to the Messiah at all.

But Keil misses a crucial point to consider here in all of this. “The prince” and “the people” cannot both be the “subject” of the sentence here. As noted earlier, “Prince” is the object of preposition "of the people," and “the people” are the ones, or the subject, that “destroy.” Even Keil admits that grammatically the people are the actual subjects doing the destroying here, and not the prince at all. He notes: “In consequence of the cutting off of the משיח [the Anointed] destruction falls upon the city and the sanctuary. This proceeds from the people of the prince who comes.”[28] So Keil can’t have it both ways here. Either “the people” are the subject, or “the prince” is the subject, but not both of them! He was tripping over his own words here and didn’t even realize it. Again, this is what deception does to an individual.

Furthermore, notice also above that Keil says that “prince” is “named last…and is also the subject in the suffix of קצּו (his end).” He doesn’t call it, as Ice leads us to believe, “the nearest antecedent in agreement with ‘he’ is ‘the prince who is to come’ in verse 26” (Ibid). Keil just states that “prince” was nearest in a succession of nouns that seemed to correspond with this Hebrew verb “confirm.” Keil gives no qualified explanation for this statement of his other than that! In other words, he cites no rules of grammar. But clearly he did seem to realize that the prince must be construed as a subject noun, so by a sleight–of–hand he conveniently creates a subject pronoun, “his end,” to force the object noun “prince” out of its “subordinate position” to “the people,” as Young had noted earlier as wrong, making him now the subject―which he can’t be when it is “the people” who are the subject and “the prince” who is their object. But Keil had an ulterior motive for doing this: an “a priori theological bias,” as Thomas Ice liked to put it of those of us who would differ with him, Keil, and others of their persuasion; turning his own statement against himself and them, not against us! This “shoe” of an "a priori theological bias" that Ice has said is to fit on others―belongs unequivocally to them! It is they who are to wear it, not us! It is upon them that this very shoe finds its absolute and perfect match!

Clearly, Keil’s word isn’t the last and final word from heaven on all of this. This “scholar” isn’t so scholarly as he would lead us all to believe. Even “scholars” (and in Hebrew at that), are subject to error. Clearly, there was more to be determined in all of this here than evidently met his eye. And he became so narrowly focused on this “prince” and his own theological biases that it forced him into a corner to mistakenly determine "the prince" as a subject in this sentence and overlook the fact that it is “the people” who are actually the subject, and “the prince” the object! Again, he can’t have it both ways here! Therefore, this is all the more reason that the suffix “his end” is correctly translated “its end” or “the end” (as it is has been overwhelming translated as such in the majority of translations). If no translated this way, then it would force “the prince” to become the subject here, which he can’t! Edward Young recognized this dilemma, and even stated above as it being the very reason why Keil’s assertions (and those who are in favor of his assertions), cannot be consistently upheld or maintained. As we can very well see, all of the major translations seem to concur with this hypothesis.

The Hebrew “qets” (pronounced, “kates”) occurs over 60 times in the OT and basically means “the end” of any person, place or thing. It refers either to, first of all: “the end” of a thing or event, such as “the end” of a period of time in Dan. 11:27, 35, 40; 12:12 and 13b. Secondly: to “the end” of the time of a person’s life in Dan. 11:45 (and possibly also used this way in 12:13a concerning Daniel). Thirdly: to “the end” of a place, such as armies coming from “the farthest ends” of the borders against Babylon (Jer. 50:26); or of the Medes coming from “the end” of the horizon (or heavens) against Babylon (Isa. 13:5ff, NASB); or even of king Sennacherib reaching “the furthest ends” of Israel’s forests (2Kin. 19:23d). And fourthly: it is even used with regards to “the end” coming upon the people of Israel in Amos 8:2, and even the four corners of the land of Israel in Ezk. 7:2.

In our present study here, in Daniel 9:26, the suffix “qets” is also in the masculine singular form. Now “prince” is in the masculine singular, “the city” is in the feminine singular, and interestingly the “sanctuary” is also in the masculine singular. Keil notes how one commentator actually thought that the suffix referred more specifically to “the sanctuary” and not necessarily to “the city,” and one can very well see why. Of course, Keil thought this to be “arbitrary” of him to affirm this. And so Keil struggled with this seemingly arbitrary separation of the city from the sanctuary. But could it just be possible that as a direct result of Christ causing the bloody and non-bloody sacrifices to cease that this would also amount to the desolation of the city and temple; but, more specifically, to the cult worship of the temple itself proper? In other words, not only would the Messiah as High Priest cause the Jewish sacrifices to cease in the sacrifice of His own body, but the Messiah as Prince (or Ruler) would also bring an “end” (or “qets”) to the very temple itself as denoted by the masculine form! After all, the city has never really seen its end, has it!? But for almost 2,000 years now the temple surely has seen its end. And let us not forget what Edward Young said, “To construe ‘prince’ as subject, does not appear to be the most natural reading, for the word [prince] occupies only a subordinate position even in verse 26, where it is not even the subject of the sentence.” And as was said before, if “its end” is “his end” (i.e., the prince’s end), then it becomes a personal, subject pronoun and forces “prince” to become the subject of the sentence as Keil has done, when he’s not the subject at all! The “people” are. By translating the Hebrew suffix qets as “its end,” it thus becomes in English a possessive pronoun, and we thus avoid making anything else in the previous verse the subject other than “the people” that are to be intended there as such. And so as Young also noted, “the phrase, ‘and its end’ need not refer to the prince but more likely to the end of the destruction as such.” In other words, it is referring to the time when “the people” would conclude their devastation of the city, and more particularly, of the temple.

Another idea to think about here is that most online lexical study tool aids recognize the part of speech of “qets” as a “masculine noun,”[29] and thus the sentence could read: “The end shall be with a flood,” as in the NIV, NLT, KJV, ASV, BBE, DRB, and DBT translations. So if understood this way, neither the prince, the people, the city, nor the sanctuary are necessarily its antecedent. It stands as a subject masculine noun all on its own as just some kind of end that will come as a flood.

Now “every noun in Hebrew has a gender, either masculine or feminine; for example, ספר [pronounced "sefer"] (book) is masculine, while דלת [pronounced "delet"] (door) is feminine. There is no strict system of former gender.”[30] Normally, “gender is a property that indicates the sex of a referent (masculine or feminine). In Hebrew, however, the correlation between the gender of a noun and its referent is generally accidental. For example, the word Torah in Hebrew is feminine, but that does not imply anything about the nature of the Torah itself. And unlike Greek, there is no ‘neuter’ gender in Hebrew.”[31]

So like the Hebrew nouns for “Torah,” “book,” and “door,” the masculine form of “qets” does not really point to any particular sex or gender at all. It can stand alone on its own merits. “The end,” which is determined by God, is, “with the overflowing flood” of the Roman armies in their destruction of the city and sanctuary as noted in the previous verse. This is the only “end” that is being prophesied about here in the immediate context, and not that of a person at all. And since “every noun in Hebrew has a gender” then “qets” as a noun here could very easily stand by itself and not be translated as a pronoun at all in our English translation as Keil has done. I particularly like this idea the most, and prefer it over the other suggestions note above. It creates no conflict of interest either with the prince, the people, or with just the idea of the sanctuary as being the referent; and since its “part of speech” is in the “noun” form, this makes it a better fit. It’s either this idea, or the idea of it being an English possessive pronoun; but it cannot be an English subject pronoun linking it to “the prince,” for then the “prince” would be removed from his more subordinate position to “the people” as a prepositional phrase and as the object of “the people,” thus making him the subject of the sentence rather than “the people.”

After having said all that, this was clearly the “time” or “period” for everything “Jewish” to come to an end! All such distinctions between the Jews and Greeks was over. This Hebrew word “qets” is used again in the very next verse and reiterates that this desolation on the city and sanctuary would be, as noted in most translations, “even until the consummation,” or “even until the end.” The main point or idea here being, in verses 26 and 27, that the “end” that is being referred to is not the prince’s end, but “the end of the time or period” of both Jewish polity and practice as the context clearly indicates to us.

According to Young, even the translation “even until the consummation” as written in the King James Version,
does not appear faithfully to represent the Hebrew....The word end means full end [see ASV above], and the phrase that determined should be regarded as the subject [in this sentence] of [the verb] shall pour. In my opinion the phrase that determined has reference to the full end, so that we might paraphrase as follows, “and until the full end which has been determined shall pour upon the desolate”....The desolate is not Titus [or Jesus, if we understand “Prince” as a referent to him], i.e., one who is made desolate, but rather is impersonal, that which is desolate, i.e., the ruins of the temple and city.[32]
What is to be determined is not the end of either a Roman prince or the One who is actually to come (the Messiah, the Prince), and who is actually behind “the people” who are doing the destroying of the city and sanctuary. It is not “his end,” as was ascertained earlier, but the time of “the end” determined by God for the city and sanctuary to become desolate, and which we now know occurred in 70 AD.

The Hebrew word “shamem” used here for “desolate” (Strong’s # 8076) is an adjective, not a noun. And, according to one online source, it is used only three times in the OT in Jer. 12:11; Dan. 9:17 and Dan. 9:27.[33] And so, in accordance with its usage here in its adjectival form (not as describing a person, but as describing a condition of that which is determined), a handful of translations translate the end of verse 27 to read that which is determined to be poured out upon “the desolate,” and not upon a “desolator” (see KJV, NKJV, ASV, DRB, DBT, WBS, WEB, NCV, LXX). The subject matter is the desolation which is determined by God upon the city and the temple, not upon the desolator.

Following this idea above, the Septuagint (LXX) translates the last portion of verse 27, as such: “and on the temple shall be the abomination of desolations; and at the end of the time an end shall be put to the desolation.” Nothing is said here about “one who shall come” as many translations mistakenly insert here, and nothing is said about any “desolator,” but just the “desolation” that was to come to an end at its appointed time by God. But even if this verse were to be understood of the “one who shall come,” the only one who was to come in this prophecy is the Messiah the Prince, the Coming One. And so when understood this way, it stands to reason that what was determined was to be upon the city and temple, and not upon the Lord himself who was to make them desolate via His desolating armies. And, as it turns out, in this particular case, they were the Roman armies. More will be said on this later.

The “time” of “the end” is the time decreed or determined by God for all of this to have come to an end. The Jewish era or epoch of time under the rule and reign of the law of Moses was to see its last days. It was to be once–and–for–all abolished! The words in this particular portion of this prophecy are not concerned about any prince’s end, but the end of the city and sanctuary as a direct result of the Jews cutting–off the Messiah. It couldn’t have been said any better than in the words of Christ himself, “Jerusalem will be trampled on by the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled” (Lke. 21:24), or, as in the words of Daniel, “until that determined shall be poured upon the desolate” (Dan. 9:27, KJV). And as the LXX reads: “the end of the time and end shall be put to desolation”). There can be no denying that natural Israel’s “time” for their city and sanctuary was to see its end. Their house (or temple) was to be, in the words of Christ, “left unto you desolate” (Mat. 23:38). It was this end that was "the end" determined by God in view here, not “the people” or an insignificant Roman prince no less. Now that, indeed, would be in the words of Keil: "arbitrary." At least in this case it would be!

So now what about Keil’s comments about the Messiah as being “the chief person” (or “subject”) as having already been proven “untenable” before having said anything about this “suffix” qets? On p. 362, of his commentary on Daniel, he notes how the terminology or “a coming prince” denotes not necessarily a “future prince,” but,
...such a one whose coming is known [similar to Leupold’s comment who will be referred to later], of whom Daniel has heard that he will come to destroy the people of God. But in the earlier revelations Daniel heard of two princes who shall bring destruction on his people: in Daniel 7:8, Daniel 7:24., of Antichrist; and in Daniel 8:9., 23ff., of Antiochus. To one of these the הבּא [prince] points. Which of the two is meant must be gathered from the connection, and this excludes the reference to Antiochus, and necessitates our thinking of the Antichrist. [34]
So, according to Keil, what is “known” about this individual is what Daniel supposedly already knew about two other previous individuals told to him in his previous prophecies: a supposed[35] future Antichrist in a revived Roman empire in our day no less in Dan. 7:8 and verse 24, or the coming ungodly prince, Antiochus Epiphanes in 8:9, 23ff. If you recall earlier, Robert Culver (parroting Keil) had alluded to this same idea when he said, “He is a ‘coming’ prince, that is, one whom the reader would already know as a prince to come, because he is the same as the ‘little horn’ on the fourth beast of chapter seven” (Ibid).

Nothing is said here at this venture, either by Culver or by Keil, that is of any “grammatical” importance. Everything at this point is purely speculative and only conjecture. And due to the fact that this “coming” of this prince seems to be “a hostile coming,” as Keil notes, then it of necessity, according to him cannot refer to the Prince of peace. But where in Scripture is God said to be just a Prince or King that brings “peace.” As we will soon find out below, God (and Jesus no less) is not only a King of Peace, but a King of Justice and Righteousness, and who also demonstrates His wrath against all ungodliness. Again, nothing is stated here by Keil (or Culver for that matter) to prove anything based upon the grammar, but only based upon their own a priori theological presuppositions and biases. And it was according to these ideas of Keil’s that he found the idea of this “prince” as referring to the Messiah as being “untenable.” Not based on grammar, mind you, but based upon an “a priori theological bias,” as they so often like to state of all those such as myself.

Quite frankly, it is Keil’s statements that I find to be “untenable,” as also thinks Young and all of the major translations. And other than Keil's changing of the suffix from “its end” to “his end,” everything else that he reasons from is based purely upon his own a priori theological bias, and not upon anything grammatical at all. And so Keil actually twists and contorts the grammar of the text to fit his own ideas about all of this. Are you seeing this? As I have clearly demonstrated, it is primarily for theological reasons that such men as Keil do this, not for any grammatical reasons at all.

So don’t you now feel a little misled and deceived by Thomas Ice in affirming that Keil’s comments were based solely upon grammatical reasons that the antecedent noun “prince” is referring to the pronoun “he” in verse 27? Keil admittedly says he came to his own conclusions with regards to all of this based upon this “prince” being someone whom Daniel would “know” as one who would come as an antichrist based upon what God had presumably told Daniel about this individual in either chapter seven or eight. I guess Daniel must have secretly whispered this private revelation into Keil’s ear (like the angel Maroni to Joseph Smith), because I don’t see the Scriptures telling us anywhere that this “Coming One,” that was known by all saints to be coming, was to be an antichrist, but was in fact to be the Christ! Now hold that thought there! More will be said on this idea later.

Now I do agree with Thomas Ice on one point of his though: “Only [an] a priori theological bias could lead a trained interpreter of Scripture to any other conclusion” (Ibid). And this is exactly what has occurred with these individuals, not those of us who believe otherwise. If such a “shoe” fits them—and for which it does—then they must own up to it and wear it! Their own “a priori theological bias” has led them to conclusions that “the trained interpreter of Scripture”—led by the teaching influences of the Holy Spirit—just will not come to. Enough said. Let’s move on.

Now, though not common, sentence structures where the pronoun is more distant from its preceding noun are to be found in some literature. Such a structure is called: A Distant Pronoun Reference, or A Distant Antecedent. Here is an example that was noted online:
The worst part of the soccer match occurred when the Argentineans (subject) slowed the play down to almost a stand-still by not going on the attack. Even the announcer lost interest and started talking about tomorrow’s schedule. I don’t think such a match will help promote the sport of soccer in North America. They (pronoun) should know that tight defensive plays frustrates fans.
Oswald T. Allis likewise concurs, “…there are many instances in the Bible where the subject which is to be supplied to the verb is not the one which immediately or closely precedes it but another that is more remote”[36] Sadly, he didn’t give any examples of this, but I did come across a couple of examples in both the Old and New Testaments where personal pronouns are shown to have a more distant antecedent noun.

One such occurrence is in Dan. 10:20-21 thru 11:1. The word “him” in 11:1 is a singular, personal, object pronoun. The phrase “of Darius the Mede” is the object of the sentence, and a noun at that. And so the closest antecedent of “him” would seem to be “Darius,” but it isn’t. The antecedent of “him” is the object noun “Michael” in 10:21. Thus, the Amplified version writes: “Also I [the angel], in the first year of Darius the Mede, even I, stood up to confirm and to strengthen him [Michael, the angel].” So, here we see a more “distant antecedent” object noun (Michael) accompanying an object pronoun (him). And most commentaries see it this way, as do the German Hebrew scholars, Keil and Delitzsch.

The second example occurs in 1Kin. 13:1-3, which reads,
Now behold, there came a man of God from Judah to Bethel by the word of the LORD, while Jeroboam was standing by the altar to burn incense. He cried against the altar by the word of the LORD, and said, “O altar, altar, thus says the LORD, ‘Behold, a son shall be born to the house of David, Josiah by name; and on you he shall sacrifice the priests of the high places who burn incense on you, and human bones shall be burned on you.’” Then he gave a sign the same day, saying, “This is the sign which the LORD has spoken, ‘Behold, the altar shall be split apart and the ashes which are on it shall be poured out’ (NASB).
Who cried out against the altar? The closest antecedent noun “Jeroboam”? Or, the more distant antecedent noun, “a man" of God? Of course, it is the man of God. And verse four even goes on to state that it is. This one isn’t as difficult to decipher as some. But the point can be well taken that the closest noun to a pronoun isn’t necessarily its antecedent.

A third example is found in Acts 7:2-4 (esp. v 4). In the NKJV and KJV “he” (a subject pronoun) in v. 4 refers back to Abraham (the subject) in v. 2, and not to “God” in the verse 3. Also “he” is the correct translation of the Greek in verse 3, and not “God” as other translations have it. So the “he,” or “God,” who "said" in verse 3, is not the “he” that is being referred to in verse 4. The NIV, ASV and NAS have “God” in italics showing that it is not in the original.

In Daniel 9:27, the pronoun “he” is clearly referring back to the more distant antecedent subject noun “Anointed One” in verse 26, because the pronoun “he” is more concerned with Christ’s High Priestly role and not with His role as the ruling Prince. For it is in His High Priestly role (and not in His Princely role) that Christ was to “confirm” or give strength to “a covenant with many” in the offering up of Himself to God as a bloody atoning sacrifice for the sins of the people. Christ, as High Priest, was “anointed” for this occasion, just as Aaron was earlier noted as being anointed as “most holy” for his high priestly role. But in Christ’s case, He was also “anointed” to be the King of Israel, just like David. The Messiah (the Anointed One) was anointed to be Prophet, Priest and King.

Once again, even if the pronoun “he” did refer to the “prince,” then Christ is also this “prince” in the context, and not some profane ruler or antichrist, whether back then or in our future. The context is centered around the “Messiah, a Prince,” and not a prince who is an Antichrist. Again, according to the immediate context, what other “prince” could the Word of the Lord possibly have in mind? God tells us through Daniel that it is the Messiah.

Christ as Lord rules over, reigns over, and even raises the armies of ungodly nations to mete out His judgments upon ungodly men and nations. In reality, they are His armies that He uses to mete out such judgments. The Scriptures repeatedly over and over again tell us so. Such ungodly nations God says are, “the rod of My anger…the club of My wrath! I send him [them] against a godless nation, I dispatch him [them] against a people who anger Me…Does the ax raise itself above Him who swings it, or the saw boast against Him who uses it?” (Isa. 10:5-6, 15). See also Mat. 22:7; Hab. 1:5-6; Rev. 17:17 and even Ex. 22:24, which states: “My anger will be aroused, and I will kill you with the sword.” With what sword? This was no less through the “swords” used by “the people” who served Him to such ends. They were His people that He used to mete out such judgments. We will talk about this more later.

Lastly, Dr. Radar, also a non-dispensationalist, writes with regards to this personal pronoun “he”:
Again note the pronoun “he.” The pronoun, of necessity, must refer to a noun previously used. Eliminating the modifying clauses, the previous sentence reads: “Messiah shall be cut off: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and he shall confirm the covenant.” If I were properly and correctly instructed in grammar, a pronoun cannot properly have as its antecedent the object of a modifying clause. Please note the subject of the sentence: “The people that shall come shall destroy the city.” The “he” cannot properly refer to the people, neither can it refer to the object of the modifying clause, “of the prince”; “he” can only correctly refer to Messiah. [37]
Even Thomas Ice (along with Keil) agrees that the subject is the people who do the destroying and not the prince. Therefore, he should have seen that the subject pronoun “he” cannot refer to the object noun “the prince,” nor to the subject noun “the people” (because “he” doesn’t agree with “people” in gender and number; nor does it agree with the prince as the object, for then this would require the object pronoun “him”), but agrees only with the subject noun “Messiah” in the preceding verse. Again, subject pronouns match subject nouns; and object pronouns match object nouns.

Look at what Thomas Ice again says,
the emphasis of this verse is upon “the people,” not the subordinate clause “the prince who is to come.” This passage is apparently stated this way so that this prophecy would link the Roman destruction with the AD 70 event, but at the same time setting up the Antichrist to be linked to the final week of years to the first “he” in verse 27. He is not described as the prince coming with the people, but instead a detached and distant description, as one who is coming. This suggests that the people and the prince will not arrive in history together.” [38]
This just goes to show you at what great lengths some wayward teachers will go in order to try and prove their own point, twisting the Scriptures to suit their own interpretations with, again, their own “a priori theological bias”; even ripping texts out of context in order to establish their own pretext. As I stated earlier, “of the prince” is a prepositional phrase “of possession,” meaning, it is “the people” as the subject in this sentence who are actually doing the activity of destroying for this Ruler then present. So by the very nature of the case, English grammar also dictates that we are not talking about some distant, far–removed ruler in our time, but one who is at that moment in time in close proximity and in relation to them. “The people” could not be said to be the “possession” of some distant ruler some 2,000 years removed from them, but one who was somehow and in someway in close association with them in using them to do his handiwork, kind of like a king sitting on his horse on a hill and observing his armies fighting.

Of what consequence is it that the prince, according to Ice, is “not described as the prince coming with the people”? It is a moot point. Many princes or rulers do not always necessarily accompany their people in their battles. And besides, the verse clearly says they are the people “of the” prince, whether he accompanies them in battle or not. Either way they are somehow in direct connection and association with each other. And as I stated above, and even earlier, grammatically the prince is in direct association with the people as “the object” of the people. They proceed from him. They are doing his bidding! How could a future Roman ruler and antichrist some 2,000 years removed from these people be in any way, shape, manner or form directly associated with those who destroy Jerusalem back in 70 AD ? Could former Nazis be said to actually belong to another Fuehrer off into our future? Could such a Fueher in our day be directly linked with those former Nazi’s actions? Of course not! Such notions are ridiculous and absurd. Again, it just goes to show you at what great lengths someone will go to when they are backed into a corner to believe in something so strongly as this false teaching of theirs has created. No one in their right frame of mind would think like this, let alone say such things, unless, of course, their minds have become so deluded as to make them think that anything such as this is at all quite feasible. Deceit knows no bounds to its deception. Anything is fair game. With deceit all accepted rules fly out the window only to make way for new man-made rules! Or, should I say, man-made “doctrines”?!?

In conclusion here, we have discovered that a proper understanding of the English grammar will not allow for us to simply place any personal pronoun with just any preceding antecedent noun. We must not match only gender and number, but also match CASE and person. In addition, even if there is no pronoun “he” in the Hebrew, it cannot be argued, as Allis has ably pointed out, “that ‘the prince’ is the subject of the verb ‘confirm’ just because it is nearer to it than is the word ‘Anointed One’” (ibid). We have seen that the verb “destroy” is no nearer to “the people” than the verb “confirm” is to “the anointed one”; and, therefore, to argue for the one false notion that the verb “confirm” refers to “the prince,” is to also argue for the other verb “destroy” to refer also to “the prince.” But as we have seen, such a notion is ridiculous as Allis, again, has previously stated:
This argument is more than offset by the fact that the subject of the verb "destroy" is not "prince" but "people" ("and the people of the prince, the coming one, shall destroy"). If the nearest subject must be regarded as the subject of the verb "confirm," it should be "people" not "prince." (Ibid)
In addition, another reason why the verb “confirm” cannot be referring to “the people” is because “the people” are not in the “masculine singular form of the verb” according to Hebrew, while “the Anointed One” most definitely is.

And lastly, another reason why we came to understand that the verb “confirm” cannot be referring to “the people” is because “the people” are not in the “masculine singular form of the verb” according to Hebrew, while “the Anointed One” most assuredly is.

And though rare in Scripture and secular writings, a few cases have been cited where a more distant antecedent noun can be found in relation to a pronoun. One was even noted again, no less, in the book of Daniel where all this argument began to take place in the first place. Oswald T. Allis has also shown us that “there are many instances in the Bible where the subject which is to be supplied to the verb is not the one which immediately or closely precedes it but another that is more remote” (ibid). I have shown you a few of them. And finally, even English grammar commonly refers to pronouns which are more distant from their nouns as: “A Distant Pronoun Reference or, A Distant Antecedent

Click here for part three.



Footnotes:

[1] Daniel, the Key to Prophetic Revelation, chap. 9, The Prophecy of the Seventy Weeks @www.bible.org.
[2] Legend states that Achilles was killed in battle by an arrow to the heel, and so an “Achilles’ heel” has come to mean a person’s principal weakness.…(wikipedia.org).
[3] The Sovereignty of God, Intro., p. 9.
[4] http://www.momswhothink.com/reading/list-of-pronouns.html.
[5] http://www.chompchomp.com/terms/prepositionalphrase.htm. Also, “A prepositional phrase is a group of words that begins with a preposition [such as: ‘of ’] and ends with a noun [such as “the Ruler” in our case] or a pronoun. This noun or pronoun is called the “object of the preposition.” (http://www.infoplease.com/cig/grammar-style/prepositional-phrases-big-daddy-phrases.html).
[6] The Seventy Weeks of Daniel, Part VIII-IX at: www.raptureme.com. The Thomas Ice Collection, op. cit.
[7] "Third person" refers to the person or people being spoken or written about (“he,” “she,” and “it” for singular, “they” for plural). http://grammar.ccc.commnet.edu/grammar/pronouns1.htm. In this case, the person (or subject) being written about in this entire narrative has to do with the Messiah. This entire prophecy is first and foremost about Him and with regards to His work. Everything else (the building of the city and sanctuary, and even its destruction) are all parenthetical in nature and subsequent to Christ’s greater work of the redemption that was to be wrought (v. 24) in His being cut-off (v. 26a) and in giving strength to His covenant ratified by His blood with many (v. 27; cp. Mat. 26:28 and Heb. 9:16-17).
[8] http://www.stlcc.edu/Student_Resources/Academic_Resources/writing_ Resources/Grammar_Handouts/ subj_verb_pron_agree.pdf.
[9] Great Prophecies of the Bible, p. 124.
10] Kenneth Gentry and Gary DeMar are no “opponent of literal interpretation.” A “literal interpretation” is exactly what they are giving according to English grammar rules. It is Thomas Ice who is giving very highly imaginative and speculative theories as to who this personal pronoun “he” is referring to. And for him, as well as others, to say it is an Antichrist some 2,000 years removed from this prophecy is not in any way, shape, manner or form understanding this 490 year time frame in the 70 weeks in a “literal” successive manner or fashion. A natural reading and “literal” interpretation of the text would not remove this 70th week from the first 69 weeks, but leave it attached.
[11] The Seventy Weeks of Daniel, Part VIII-IX @ www.raptureme.com. The Thomas Ice Collection.
[12] Is he referring to the subject or the object of the preceding sentence? He clearly has the “object” noun of “the prince” in mind. To be sure, the “subject” noun is the closest antecedent to be sought after. And since the subject is “the people” and not “the prince,” the only possible antecedent “subject noun” is the Messiah. “The people” are not in the masculine singular, but the Messiah is. It is also of utmost importance to understand that almost all translations supply the subject pronoun “he.” Why is this so if it were not for their understanding of the Hebrew construction here? The LXX even goes so far as to omit the pronoun altogether, with no indication as to who is doing the confirming, and translates the passage as such: “And one week shall establish the covenant with many: and in the midst of the week My sacrifice and drink-offering shall be taken away. It even says “and he [the anointed one] shall destroy the city and sanctuary,” and “he shall appoint the city to desolations.” Of course, it also says that the anointed one “shall do it with the prince that is coming,” and that “they [evidently the two of them] shall be cut off…” The Septuagint with Apocrypha, by Brenton, p. 1065). How reliable they are in their translation, one can only guess. It doesn’t seem to be that which can necessarily be absolutely relied upon here.
[13] The Seventy Weeks of Daniel, Part VIII-IX @ www.raptureme.com. The Thomas Ice Collection.
[14] Prophecy and the Church, p. 121.
[15] The Seventy Weeks of Daniel, Part VIII-IX @ www.raptureme.com. The Thomas Ice Collection.
[16] Taken from his online notes on Daniel 9:27 at: http://www.gty.org/Resources/Sermons/27-26_Israels-Future-Part-3. This is all he says. There is no explanation given to us as to how he came to this conclusion, other than just saying, “that’s the proper antecedent for ‘he’.” Remarkable! I guess if John MacArthur says it, that must settle it!
[17] Barnes’ Notes on Daniel, p. 181.
[18] The Return of the Lord, chap. 5, The Seventieth Week of Daniel @ www.bible.org. Bracketed words mine.
[19] Daniel, the Key to Prophetic Revelation, Chap. 9, The Prophecy of the Seventy Weeks @ www.bible.org.
[20] Ibid.
[21] Many in the dispensational/premillennial camp do this. For instance, John MacArthur likewise says, “…Who is he? Applying the accepted rule of interpretation and observing the text for the nearest antecedent of the pronoun he (without bias or influence by other ‘experts’) one most logically links he with the prince who is to come (Daniel 9:26). This is also the conclusion reached by most conservative evangelical commentaries who go on to identify him as the Antichrist” (Grace To You, online). MacArthur belittles the “experts” and answers his own question with the similar overly simplistic answer: “One most logically thinks he with the prince who should come.” On the surface, I would agree, it does seem to “logically” apply to the prince. But it isn’t until you study the “experts” in grammar that you discover that “he” here cannot refer to “the prince,” just as the verb “destroy” doesn’t refer to the closest antecedent “the prince,” but “the people.” Furthermore, most conservative evangelical commentaries (not in the premillennial camp) do not identify him as the Antichrist. MacArthur is misleading here. He leads one to think that all “conservative evangelicals” are in favor, or in support of MacArthur’s position, when they are not. On the contrary, many are very conservative, while at the same time disagreeing with MacArthur’s analysis here of the pronoun “he.” For instance, John Calvin, a conservative evangelical, concurs: “The angel now continues his discourse concerning Christ by saying, he should confirm the treaty with many for one week” (Daniel, p. 224).
[22] http://grammar.ccc.commnet.edu/grammar/pronouns1.htm.
[23] Walvoord, Daniel, The Key to Prophetic Revelation, chap. 9, The Prophecy of the Seventy Weeks @ www.bible.org.
[24] This was an assumption made by him based upon no solid or concrete evidence. It is only his opinion, or conjecture. And so no one should be misled to suppose that his analysis is true just because he thinks it is true!
[25] He is referring to the phrase “his end shall come with a flood,” in verse 26, where most reliable translations have it as “its end (or ‘the end’) shall come with a flood.” But this is a matter of personal preference as to “who” or “what” this Hebrew word “kates” is referring to. So Keil cannot be so dogmatic here and thus draw a conclusion that “the prince” is the “subject” of “his end.” It is the city and temple that is to see “its end,” and not the prince. As Albert Barnes notes in his commentary on Daniel, “It is not certain as to what the word ‘it’ here refers. It may be either the end of the city, or of the prince, or of the prophecy, so far as the grammatical construction is concerned. As the principal and immediate subject of the prophecy, however, is the city, it is more natural to refer it to that” (p. 180).
[26] Notes on Daniel taken from online at: http://bible.cc/daniel/9-26.htm. Bracketed words for clarity, mine.
[27] Just as Christ was “cut-off” or brought to and end by the overwhelming flood of Jews, so too would they see their own “end” in their persons and, more particularly, in the destruction of their city and sanctuary by an overwhelming flood of armies of people as a just retribution for their crimes, for such does the word “flood” signify, both here and elsewhere in Scripture (cp. Dan. 11:10, 22, 26; Isa. 8:7-8; Psm. 32:6; Nah. 1:8). And what Christ began to bring an end to in causing the bloody “sacrifices” and non-bloody “oblations” to cease, He would also further bring an “end” to in the desolation of the city and, more specifically, to the temple in which such sacrifices were still being offered.
[28] The Book of Daniel, p. 362.
[29] For just a few online tools with this regards, see: http://studybible.info/strongs/H7093, http://www.searchgodsword.org/lex/heb/view.cgi?number=07093 and http://www.bibletools.org/index.cfm/fuseaction/Lexicon.show/ID/H7093/qets.htm.
[30] http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hebrew_grammar.
[31] http://www.hebrew4christians.com/Grammar/Unit_Four/Noun_Properties/
noun_properties.html.
[32] A Commentary on Daniel, p. 219. Words in italics his. Bold emphasis and words in brackets mine.
[33] See http://www.bibletools.org/index.cfm/fuseaction/Lexicon.show/ ID/H8076/shamem.htm for these three examples and the part of speech of this word as being that of an adjective. At BibleStudyTools.com they show two examples of this adjective in Jer. 12:11 and Dan. 9:17 (see http://www.biblestudytools.com/lexicons/ hebrew/nas/shamem-2.html). In my hardback Strong’s concordance it gives six examples besides the one here in Dan. 9:27. They are in: Isa. 49:8; Lam. 1:4, 13, 16; 3:11 and Ezk. 36:4. Why the discrepancies between these lexical study tools, I don’t know! But the fact of the matter remains is that we are talking about an adjective here that modifies a noun or the subject in the sentence, and is not to be understood as the noun or subject itself. In other words, it is not an adjectival noun. It is a description of that which is determined (i.e., desolations), not a descriptive word for a person such as a Desolator. And as Edward Young notes, it is “that determined” which is the subject here (and not the prince back in verse 26, as Keil would have us believe*) and which is to “pour upon the desolate” (or that which is determined to be poured upon that which is in a “ruin” or “devastated,” as this word here “desolate” denotes) This Hebrew word for “desolate” also comes from the root, Strong’s #8074, and whose part of speech there is a verb and thus rendered as such in Dan. 9:26 (see also http://www.bibletools.org/index.cfm/ fuseaction/Lexicon.show/ID/H8074/ shamem.htm). In none of the concordances to the KJV, NAS, or the NIV do they give “desolator” as the meaning of this word, because it is only used as a verb or as an adjective, but never as a noun.
* Keil states on this last half of verse 27, “This ungodly prince who comes as the desolator of the city and the sanctuary will on that account become desolate, that the destruction irrevocably decreed by God shall pour down upon him as a flood” (vol. 9, p. 373).
[34] Ibid., p. 362.
[35] I say “supposed” because all of this is, again, nothing but conjecture. In Daniel 7, a “little horn” was to arise out of the Roman Empire that, even according to all Roman historians of that day, was divided up into ten kingdoms or regions, with each kingdom ruled by its own ruler. Three of these kingdoms were taken over by the little horn. History tells us that this “little horn” was none other than the Roman Papacy who set himself up in the temple of God (God’s Church), claiming himself with such honors no less as those who were to go to only God alone. History records for us that “three” of these “regions” or “kingdoms” were handed over to the Roman Papacy. See Barnes’ Commentary on Daniel for a further investigation into all of this. And irregardless of what one believes with regards to these passages here in Daniel 7, this person, or “little horn,” is not “the prince” mentioned in Daniel 9:26. This “prince” in Daniel 9:26 can only be either: 1) the Roman general Titus who led “the people” to destroy the city and sanctuary of Jerusalem, or; 2) as the context would necessitate it, this “prince” is the “Messiah, a Prince” in verse 25.
[36] Prophecy and the Church, p. 121.
[37] The 70th Week of Daniel. Taken from an out of print pamphlet The Researcher, 1984 (see also Ralph Woodrow’s Great Prophecies of the Bible, pp. 7, 124-125) .
[38] The Seventy Weeks of Daniel, Part VIII-IX @ www.raptureme.com. The Thomas Ice Collection.